Current Affairs
The Hindu · UPSC Edition
📅 10 May 2026
10
Topics
9
MCQs
GS
1 · 2 · 3
+
🔍
What HappenedForeign Portfolio Investors' (FPIs) share in Indian equities fell to a 14-year low, reflecting sustained outflows driven by rising global interest rates, geopolitical uncertainty, and shifting risk appetite across emerging markets.
📌
Key HighlightsPersistent FPI outflows linked to rising global interest rates + geopolitical risks + changing risk appetite in emerging markets.
Domestic Institutional Investors (DIIs) — mutual funds, insurance companies, pension funds — are increasingly stabilising Indian equity markets.
Large-cap sectors remain relatively resilient; mid & small-cap segments show heightened volatility during FPI selloffs.
FPI outflows exert depreciation pressure on the Indian Rupee and affect overall market liquidity in the short term.
📚
Key Facts▸
FPI: invest in stocks, bonds, securities without seeking managerial control — purely passive investment.
▸
FPI ≠ FDI: FDI = lasting interest + management control; FPI = portfolio investment only.
▸
FPIs regulated by SEBI under FPI Regulations, 2019.
▸
DIIs = Mutual Funds + Insurance Companies + Pension Funds investing domestically.
▸
FPI flows significantly influence market liquidity, INR exchange rate, and stock-market volatility in emerging economies.
▸
RBI manages exchange rate through its forex reserves intervention to cushion FPI-driven volatility.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"FPI = Fast Portfolio In-and-Out" — they rush in when emerging markets are hot and rush out when US rates rise. DIIs = Domestic Anchors that stabilise markets when FPIs flee. Key rule: FPI → passive investment; FDI → active control.
🎯
UPSC Level MCQ
UPSC Prelims
GS-3 · Economy · Statement Based
Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) in India:
1. FPIs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
2. FPI outflows always cause depreciation of the Indian Rupee against the US Dollar.
3. Domestic Institutional Investors (DIIs) include mutual funds, insurance companies, and pension funds.
4. FPIs can acquire management control in Indian companies under the FPI route.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. FPIs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
2. FPI outflows always cause depreciation of the Indian Rupee against the US Dollar.
3. Domestic Institutional Investors (DIIs) include mutual funds, insurance companies, and pension funds.
4. FPIs can acquire management control in Indian companies under the FPI route.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 3 only
C2 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 ✔ — SEBI regulates FPI under FPI Regulations, 2019.Statement 2 ✘ — FPI outflows generally put depreciation pressure on INR but do NOT always cause depreciation — RBI can intervene using forex reserves to stabilise the rupee.
Statement 3 ✔ — DIIs = Mutual Funds + Insurance Companies + Pension Funds.
Statement 4 ✘ — FPIs CANNOT acquire managerial control; that is the FDI route. FPI = purely passive investment.
+
🔍
What HappenedResearchers used a portable underwater camera system to document previously unseen marine biodiversity on the Arctic seafloor beneath Greenlandic waters, revealing rich ecosystems despite extreme cold and high pressure.
📌
Key HighlightsDeep-sea Arctic ecosystems support rich biodiversity despite extreme cold, darkness, and high pressure — challenging earlier assumptions.
Technological advances in underwater imaging are improving understanding of poorly studied ocean ecosystems worldwide.
Growing concern: climate change, melting polar ice, and ocean warming threatening sensitive Arctic marine habitats.
Polar regions warm 2–4× faster than global average due to the ice-albedo feedback mechanism (Arctic Amplification).
📚
Key Facts▸
Arctic Ocean surrounds the North Pole and is largely covered by sea ice.
▸
Deep-sea organisms adapted to: extreme cold + darkness + high pressure.
▸
Bioluminescence: common adaptation — organisms produce own light in the dark deep sea.
▸
Greenland: world's largest island; contains one of Earth's largest ice sheets.
▸
Ice-Albedo Feedback: melting ice → dark ocean exposed → less reflectivity → more heat absorbed → further warming (positive feedback loop).
▸
Arctic Amplification: Arctic warms at 2–4× the global average rate due to feedback mechanisms.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"Triple-A Arctic Rule: Arctic → Amplified warming → Albedo loss." Bioluminescence = nature's street lights in the pitch-dark deep ocean. Greenland = world's largest island (not a continent — Antarctica is the continent!).
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-1 · Physical Geography · Concept Based
Which of the following best describes the 'ice-albedo feedback' mechanism in the context of polar warming?
AMelting ice increases ocean salinity, which reduces heat absorption by oceans.
BReduction in ice cover decreases surface reflectivity, leading to greater heat absorption and further warming.
CMelting glaciers release carbon dioxide stored in ice, accelerating the greenhouse effect directly.
DDecreasing albedo causes polar winds to slow, trapping heat near the surface permanently.
✅ Answer: (B)
Albedo = reflectivity of a surface. Ice/snow = HIGH albedo (reflects most sunlight). When ice melts → dark ocean exposed → LOW albedo → MORE solar heat absorbed → temperatures rise → MORE ice melts. This self-reinforcing loop = positive feedback mechanism responsible for Arctic Amplification. The Arctic warms 2–4× faster than the global average as a result.
+
🔍
What HappenedHimachal Pradesh CM Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu ordered a comprehensive scientific study into recurring cloudburst incidents across the Himalayan region to understand climatic and geographical contributing factors.
📌
Key HighlightsStudy covers: terrain characteristics, temperature patterns, dam-related impacts, and atmospheric conditions linked to extreme rainfall.
Growing emphasis on scientific disaster-risk reduction, early warning systems, and climate-resilient planning in Himalayan regions.
Uttarakhand flood maps may underestimate risk by relying on average rainfall instead of extreme event patterns — parallel concern raised by researchers.
HPSDMA (Himachal Pradesh State Disaster Management Authority) = nodal agency for disaster preparedness in HP.
📚
Key Facts▸
Cloudburst: ≥100 mm/hour rainfall over a limited geographical area in a short duration — often leads to flash floods.
▸
Himalayan regions: vulnerable due to steep slopes, fragile geology, and orographic rainfall patterns.
▸
Orographic rainfall: moist air forced upward by mountains → cools → condenses → heavy rain on windward side.
▸
GLOFs (Glacial Lake Outburst Floods): glacier-fed lakes breaching natural/artificial barriers — different from cloudbursts.
▸
NDMA: National Disaster Management Authority under Disaster Management Act, 2005.
▸
Climate change is increasing frequency and intensity of cloudbursts, GLOFs, and extreme precipitation across Himalayan States.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"3C Rule of Himalayan Disasters: Cloudburst → Canyon slopes → Cascading flash floods." GLOF = "Glacier's Last Outburst → Floods!" Remember: Cloudburst ≠ GLOF — different triggers, same devastation.
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-1 · Disaster Management · Statement Based
Consider the following statements about cloudbursts and related Himalayan phenomena:
1. A cloudburst involves rainfall of at least 100 mm per hour over a limited geographical area.
2. Orographic rainfall is one of the key mechanisms behind cloudbursts in Himalayan regions.
3. Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) and cloudbursts are identical phenomena caused by the same physical processes.
4. HPSDMA is the nodal agency for disaster management in Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A cloudburst involves rainfall of at least 100 mm per hour over a limited geographical area.
2. Orographic rainfall is one of the key mechanisms behind cloudbursts in Himalayan regions.
3. Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) and cloudbursts are identical phenomena caused by the same physical processes.
4. HPSDMA is the nodal agency for disaster management in Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1, 2 and 4 only
B1 and 3 only
C2, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 ✔ — Cloudburst = ≥100 mm/hr in a limited area.Statement 2 ✔ — Orographic lift causes moisture-laden air to release intense precipitation over Himalayan slopes.
Statement 3 ✘ — GLOFs and cloudbursts are different: GLOFs = breach of glacial lake dams (hydrological); Cloudbursts = atmospheric extreme rainfall events.
Statement 4 ✔ — HPSDMA = Himachal Pradesh State Disaster Management Authority; it is the designated nodal agency.
+
🔍
What HappenedA tiger was photographed through a camera trap in Arunachal Pradesh's D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary for the first time in nearly two decades, indicating revival of the local ecosystem.
📌
Key HighlightsReturn of apex predators like tigers = strong ecological indicator of improving biodiversity balance and healthy prey populations.
Eco-development + sustainable livelihoods → reduced human pressure on protected areas → better conservation outcomes.
Northeast India is biodiversity-rich yet threatened by habitat fragmentation, development pressures, and poaching.
📚
Key Facts▸
D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary: Arunachal Pradesh; Siang river floodplains; named after freedom fighter Daying Ering.
▸
Camera trapping: non-invasive scientific method for monitoring elusive wildlife species.
▸
Tiger: 'Endangered' on IUCN Red List.
▸
Protected under Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 — highest legal protection in India.
▸
Project Tiger: launched 1973; managed by NTCA (National Tiger Conservation Authority) under MoEFCC.
▸
India: world's largest tiger population (~3,682 as per 2022 Tiger Census).
▸
Arunachal Pradesh: part of Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot; also hosts Namdapha Tiger Reserve.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"D'Ering = 3D comeback: Daying Ering + Decades of absence + Deep jungle tiger return!" Project Tiger = 1973. Tigers = Schedule I = supreme protection under WPA 1972. India = world's #1 tiger nation (~3,682 tigers).
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-3 · Environment · Statement Based
Consider the following statements about tiger conservation in India:
1. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 and is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
2. Tigers are listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is located along the floodplains of the Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Arunachal Pradesh is part of the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 and is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
2. Tigers are listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is located along the floodplains of the Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh.
4. Arunachal Pradesh is part of the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 3 and 4 only
C2 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Statement 1 ✔ — Project Tiger 1973; NTCA administers it under MoEFCC.Statement 2 ✘ — Tigers are under Schedule I, NOT Schedule II. Schedule I = highest legal protection under WPA 1972.
Statement 3 ✔ — D'Ering is on Siang river floodplains, Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 4 ✔ — Arunachal Pradesh is part of the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot.
+
🔍
What HappenedRajasthan CM Bhajan Lal Sharma announced the State is positioning itself as a global hub for agro-based industries and value-added agricultural products through investments in food processing, cold chains, and spice parks.
📌
Key HighlightsGoal: agricultural value addition + reduced post-harvest losses + rural employment through agro-industrial infrastructure.
Cold-chain logistics → stronger supply chains → improved farmer income → boosted agricultural exports.
Aligns with national emphasis on agro-processing, agri-business investment, and farmer-market integration under various central schemes.
📚
Key Facts▸
Food processing: transformation of raw agricultural produce into consumable/value-added products.
▸
Cold-chain infrastructure: temperature-controlled storage & transport for perishables (fruits, vegetables, dairy, meat).
▸
Spice parks: specialised zones for spice processing, quality testing, packaging, and export promotion.
▸
Rajasthan: leading producer of spices, oilseeds, and millet in arid & semi-arid regions.
▸
Value addition: increases market value of produce before sale/export → directly raises farmer income.
▸
PM Kisan Sampada Yojana: central scheme for modern food processing infrastructure development.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"Rajasthan's 3C Agro Model: Cold chains + Cluster spice parks + Creating rural jobs." Spice Park = where spices go from farm → factory → foreign markets. Value addition = adding rupees, not just weight!
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-3 · Agriculture · Statement Based
With reference to agro-industrial development in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Spice parks support spice processing, quality testing, packaging, and export promotion.
2. Cold-chain infrastructure is relevant only for dairy products and not for horticultural produce.
3. Rajasthan is among India's leading producers of spices, oilseeds, and millet crops.
4. Value addition in agriculture reduces the market value of produce before export.
Select the correct answer:
1. Spice parks support spice processing, quality testing, packaging, and export promotion.
2. Cold-chain infrastructure is relevant only for dairy products and not for horticultural produce.
3. Rajasthan is among India's leading producers of spices, oilseeds, and millet crops.
4. Value addition in agriculture reduces the market value of produce before export.
Select the correct answer:
A1 and 3 only
B1, 2 and 3 only
C3 and 4 only
D2 and 4 only
✅ Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 ✔ — Spice parks = processing + testing + packaging + export promotion zones.Statement 2 ✘ — Cold-chain covers fruits, vegetables, dairy, AND meat — not only dairy.
Statement 3 ✔ — Rajasthan = leading producer of spices, oilseeds, and millets in arid/semi-arid regions.
Statement 4 ✘ — Value addition increases market value of produce, it does NOT reduce it.
+
🔍
What HappenedTelangana Police registered a case under the POCSO Act against Bandi Bhageerath, son of Union Minister Bandi Sanjay, following allegations by a 17-year-old girl.
📌
Key HighlightsUnder POCSO, consent of a minor is legally irrelevant — any sexual act with a person below 18 is an offence regardless of apparent consent.
Counter-complaints and coercion/extortion allegations highlight legal complexities in sensitive cases involving public figures.
Key principles: due process + victim protection + fair investigation — especially in politically sensitive cases.
📚
Key Facts▸
POCSO Act: enacted in 2012 to specifically address sexual offences against children.
▸
"Child" under POCSO = any person below 18 years of age.
▸
Child-friendly procedures: in-camera proceedings + confidentiality of victim identity during trials.
▸
POCSO cases tried in designated Special Courts for speedy disposal.
▸
POCSO is gender-neutral: protects both boy and girl children.
▸
Mandatory reporting: any person aware of a POCSO offence must report it — failure is a criminal offence.
▸
2019 Amendment: introduced death penalty for aggravated penetrative sexual assault of children below 12.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"POCSO = Protect Our Children from Sexual Offences" — enacted 2012; child = below 18; consent irrelevant; in-camera trials; gender-neutral; mandatory reporting. 2019: death penalty added for worst cases. Remember: No consent excuse under POCSO!
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-2 · Governance · Statement Based
Which of the following statements regarding the POCSO Act, 2012 are correct?
1. The Act defines a 'child' as any person below the age of 18 years.
2. The Act applies only to offences committed against girl children.
3. Consent of a minor is legally irrelevant under the POCSO framework.
4. The Act mandates in-camera proceedings and confidentiality of the victim's identity.
5. Failure to report a POCSO offence is itself a criminal offence under the Act.
Select the correct answer:
1. The Act defines a 'child' as any person below the age of 18 years.
2. The Act applies only to offences committed against girl children.
3. Consent of a minor is legally irrelevant under the POCSO framework.
4. The Act mandates in-camera proceedings and confidentiality of the victim's identity.
5. Failure to report a POCSO offence is itself a criminal offence under the Act.
Select the correct answer:
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1, 3, 4 and 5 only
C2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
✅ Answer: (B) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Statement 1 ✔ — Child = below 18 years under POCSO.Statement 2 ✘ — POCSO is gender-neutral; it protects both boys AND girls.
Statement 3 ✔ — Consent of a minor is legally irrelevant under POCSO.
Statement 4 ✔ — In-camera proceedings + victim identity confidentiality are mandated.
Statement 5 ✔ — Mandatory reporting obligation exists; non-reporting is punishable under the Act.
+
🔍
What HappenedIndia successfully test-fired an advanced Agni missile capable of deploying Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles (MIRVs) — a landmark in India's strategic deterrence capabilities.
📌
Key HighlightsMIRV = one missile → multiple warheads → different targets simultaneously → significantly enhances strategic strike capability.
Demonstrates India's growing indigenous defence ecosystem led by DRDO → strengthens credible minimum deterrence.
Advancements in long-range precision targeting, tracking systems, and integrated missile command amid evolving security challenges.
MIRV capability makes it exponentially harder for adversaries to intercept all warheads — multiplies deterrence value.
📚
Key Facts▸
MIRV: one ballistic missile carries multiple nuclear/conventional warheads aimed at separate targets independently.
▸
Agni series: surface-to-surface ballistic missiles; developed by DRDO under IGMDP.
▸
IGMDP also produced: Prithvi, Akash, Trishul, Nag missiles.
▸
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Island (formerly Wheeler Island), Odisha = India's primary missile testing facility.
▸
India's nuclear doctrine: Credible Minimum Deterrence + No First Use (NFU) policy.
▸
Countries with confirmed MIRV capability: USA, Russia, UK, France, China — and now India.
▸
Mission Divyastra = codename for India's first MIRV test (2024).
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"MIRV = Many arrows from One bow" — one missile, multiple targets. India's nuclear policy: "No First Use, but Massive Retaliation if attacked." IGMDP = P-A-A-T-N: Prithvi + Agni + Akash + Trishul + Nag = 5 iconic missiles from 1 programme.
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-3 · Defence Technology · Statement Based
Which of the following statements about India's Agni missile programme and MIRV technology are correct?
1. MIRV allows a single ballistic missile to carry multiple warheads independently directed to separate targets.
2. The Agni series was developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
3. India's missile testing facility is located at Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.
4. India's nuclear doctrine is based on the principle of 'First Strike' and 'Maximum Deterrence'.
Select the correct answer:
1. MIRV allows a single ballistic missile to carry multiple warheads independently directed to separate targets.
2. The Agni series was developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
3. India's missile testing facility is located at Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.
4. India's nuclear doctrine is based on the principle of 'First Strike' and 'Maximum Deterrence'.
Select the correct answer:
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1 and 4 only
C2, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 ✔ — MIRV = multiple independently targetable warheads from one missile.Statement 2 ✔ — Agni developed under IGMDP by DRDO.
Statement 3 ✔ — Abdul Kalam Island (formerly Wheeler Island), Odisha = India's primary missile test range.
Statement 4 ✘ — India's doctrine is Credible Minimum Deterrence + No First Use (NFU), NOT First Strike or Maximum Deterrence. India pledges not to use nuclear weapons first.
+
🔍
What HappenedClinical trial results showed new experimental drug daraxonrasib produced promising outcomes in treating pancreatic cancer by targeting KRAS-related cancer mutations — long considered 'undruggable'.
📌
Key HighlightsPancreatic cancer = one of the deadliest cancers: often diagnosed at advanced stage + limited treatment options + 5-year survival rate <12%.
KRAS mutations drive uncontrolled cell growth — found in ~90% of pancreatic cancers and several other cancers.
Breakthrough in precision medicine: targeting specific molecular mutations → improved survival prospects.
Convergence of molecular biology, targeted therapies, and genetic research transforming cancer treatment globally.
📚
Key Facts▸
Cancer: uncontrolled growth and division of abnormal cells in the body.
▸
KRAS gene: regulates cell growth and signalling. Mutations → pancreatic (~90%), colorectal (~40%), lung cancers (~30%).
▸
Pancreas: dual role — exocrine (digestion) + endocrine (insulin/glucagon for blood sugar regulation).
▸
Targeted therapy: drugs that attack cancer-specific genes, proteins, or cellular pathways.
▸
Clinical trial phases: Phase I (safety) → II (efficacy) → III (large-scale) → IV (post-market surveillance).
▸
KRAS was long considered 'undruggable' — daraxonrasib may represent the breakthrough scientists sought for decades.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"KRAS = Killer Resistant And Silent gene — undruggable until daraxonrasib!" Pancreas = 2D organ: Digestion + Diabetes control. Clinical trials: SESS = Safety → Efficacy → Scale → Surveillance (4 phases).
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-3 · Science & Tech · Statement Based
Consider the following statements with reference to KRAS mutations and cancer treatment:
1. Mutations in the KRAS gene are frequently associated with pancreatic, colorectal, and lung cancers.
2. Targeted therapy involves drugs designed to specifically attack cancer-related genes, proteins, or cellular pathways.
3. Pancreatic cancer has one of the highest 5-year survival rates among all cancers due to early detection.
4. Clinical trials progress through multiple phases to evaluate safety and efficacy before drug approval.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Mutations in the KRAS gene are frequently associated with pancreatic, colorectal, and lung cancers.
2. Targeted therapy involves drugs designed to specifically attack cancer-related genes, proteins, or cellular pathways.
3. Pancreatic cancer has one of the highest 5-year survival rates among all cancers due to early detection.
4. Clinical trials progress through multiple phases to evaluate safety and efficacy before drug approval.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A1, 2 and 4 only
B1 and 3 only
C2, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 ✔ — KRAS mutations: pancreatic (~90%), colorectal (~40%), lung (~30%).Statement 2 ✔ — Targeted therapy = drugs attacking specific molecular cancer targets.
Statement 3 ✘ — Pancreatic cancer has one of the LOWEST 5-year survival rates (<12%), NOT highest — mainly due to late-stage diagnosis and very limited treatment options.
Statement 4 ✔ — Clinical trials: Phase I→II→III→IV (SESS model).
+
🔍
What HappenedThe Union government operationalised the four Labour Codes by publishing final Rules, while trade unions protested against provisions related to wages, working hours, and labour rights.
📌
Key Highlights29 existing central labour laws replaced by 4 comprehensive codes covering wages, industrial relations, occupational safety, and social security.
Trade union concerns: extended working hours (12-hr shifts), weakened collective bargaining, minimum wage dilution, reduced worker protection.
Goals: improved ease of doing business + labour formalisation + simplified compliance mechanisms.
Labour = Concurrent List — both Centre and States can legislate; States must notify own Rules for codes to take full effect.
📚
The Four Labour Codes — WISO Framework▸
🟡 W — Code on Wages (2019): Universalises minimum wages + timely payment across organised & unorganised sectors. Replaces 4 laws.
▸
🟠 I — Industrial Relations Code (2020): Trade unions, dispute resolution, layoffs. Threshold for prior govt permission for retrenchment raised to 300 workers (from 100).
▸
🟢 S — Code on Social Security (2020): PF, insurance, maternity benefits. First-ever social security for gig/platform workers.
▸
🔵 O — Occupational Safety, Health & Working Conditions Code (2020): Safety standards across 13 major industrial sectors.
▸
Labour = Concurrent List (List III), Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
▸
Second National Commission on Labour (2002) — Ravindra Varma — recommended consolidation into 4 codes.
🧠
Memory Hook💡
"WISO = 4 Labour Codes: Wages + Industrial Relations + Social Security + Occupational Safety." 29 old laws → 4 WISO codes. Gig workers get social security for FIRST TIME = historic. Labour = Concurrent List = both Centre & States legislate.
🎯
UPSC Level MCQUPSC PrelimsGS-3 · Economy · Statement Based
With reference to India's four Labour Codes, consider the following statements:
1. The four Labour Codes collectively replace 29 central labour laws.
2. The Code on Social Security, for the first time, extends social security benefits to gig and platform workers.
3. The Industrial Relations Code raises the threshold for prior government permission for retrenchment to establishments employing 300 or more workers.
4. Labour is a subject in the Union List, giving only the Centre power to legislate on labour matters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. The four Labour Codes collectively replace 29 central labour laws.
2. The Code on Social Security, for the first time, extends social security benefits to gig and platform workers.
3. The Industrial Relations Code raises the threshold for prior government permission for retrenchment to establishments employing 300 or more workers.
4. Labour is a subject in the Union List, giving only the Centre power to legislate on labour matters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1, 2 and 3 only
B1 and 4 only
C2, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
✅ Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 ✔ — 4 Labour Codes replace 29 existing central labour laws.Statement 2 ✔ — Code on Social Security: landmark first-ever social security for gig/platform workers.
Statement 3 ✔ — Industrial Relations Code: threshold raised from 100 → 300 workers for retrenchment permission. A pro-industry, trade-union opposed provision.
Statement 4 ✘ — Labour is in the Concurrent List (List III), NOT the Union List. Both Centre AND States can legislate. States must also notify their own Rules.
+
🏛️ Governor's Role in Hung Assembly — GS-2 Polity
▼
▸
Hung Assembly: no party/alliance secures absolute majority in State legislature.
▸
Governor invites single-largest party to form govt and prove majority via floor test.
▸
S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994): majority must be tested on floor of the House — landmark Supreme Court ruling.
▸
Article 164: CM appointed by Governor; other ministers on CM's advice.
▸
Articles 153–162: provisions relating to Governor's office and powers.
▸
Article 356: President's Rule if constitutional machinery fails in a State.
🦠 Hantavirus — Global Health Alert (GS-2/3)
▼
▸
Hantavirus: group of viruses transmitted via contact with infected rodents (urine, droppings, saliva, contaminated dust).
▸
HPS (Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome): affects lungs. HFRS: affects kidneys.
▸
Does NOT spread easily human-to-human — zoonotic disease (animal to human transmission).
▸
MV Hondius cruise ship = site of recent hantavirus outbreak raising global concerns.
▸
Prevention: rodent control + sanitation + avoiding rodent-infested areas.
🛰️ India's First Orbital Data Centre Satellite — GS-3 Space Tech
▼
▸
Pixxel (Bengaluru) + Sarvam AI → India's first orbital data centre satellite by 2026.
▸
Orbital data centre: satellite-based computing infrastructure processing/storing data directly in space.
▸
Advantage: reduces transmission delays; improves earth observation data processing efficiency.
▸
Challenges: heat dissipation in vacuum, radiation damage, GPU chip durability in space.
▸
LEO (Low Earth Orbit): 160–2,000 km above Earth's surface.
▸
Pixxel: known for hyperspectral imaging satellites capturing numerous electromagnetic spectrum bands.
🪲 Dragonfly Decline in Western Ghats — GS-3 Environment
▼
▸
Only ~65% of historically recorded dragonfly/damselfly species found in surveyed Western Ghats regions.
▸
Order: Odonata — closely associated with freshwater ecosystems (ponds, streams, rivers).
▸
Bioindicators: their decline signals deteriorating freshwater ecosystem health and water quality.
▸
Causes: habitat fragmentation + pollution + deforestation + unregulated development.
▸
Western Ghats: UNESCO World Heritage Site + one of world's 8 "hottest" biodiversity hotspots; spans 6 States.
🌫️ Why Sky Appears Greyish in Hot Weather — GS-1 Atmosphere
▼
▸
Hot days → increased atmospheric humidity + dust + aerosols → altered sunlight scattering → greyish-blue sky.
▸
Normal blue sky: Rayleigh scattering — shorter wavelengths (blue) scatter more than longer ones (red).
▸
Aerosols scatter all wavelengths more uniformly → sky appears whitish/greyish instead of deep blue.
▸
Particulate pollution (PM2.5, PM10) also reduces sky clarity, especially in hot and dry weather.
🥬 Kashmiri Haakh (Collard Greens) — GS-1 Culture & Agriculture
▼
▸
Haakh: Kashmiri collard greens; belongs to Brassica family of leafy vegetables.
▸
Deeply linked with Kashmiri identity, cuisine, and local farming systems — cultural and nutritional staple.
▸
Dal Lake, Srinagar: famous for floating gardens called 'Raadh' — supports haakh cultivation and trade.
▸
Shikaras: traditional wooden boats used in Kashmir's lakes and waterways for transport.
▸
Kashmir Valley: temperate climate suitable for year-round leafy vegetable cultivation.
