The Indian Express Daily Quiz 6 October 2026: 20 MCQs with Authentic UPSC PYQs & Solutions

🏛️ UPSC PRELIMS DAILY PRACTICE PORTAL 🗓️ 6 October 2026

The Indian Express Daily Editorial Quiz (10 Topics • 20 MCQs)

Master 10 high-yield editorial themes with paired Expected Current Affairs MCQs immediately followed by authentic Official UPSC CSE Past Year Questions (PYQs).

📌 10 Paired Editorial Topics Covered Today:

1. GST Process Reforms & Tech-Enabled Compliance 2. One Nation, One Election (ONOE) & Separation of Powers 3. RBI Rate Hike & Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) 4. MoSPI Household Travel Survey & Urban Public Transport 5. Central Secretariat Library Relocation & Public Heritage 6. Gujarat Water Governance Model (4 Ps) & Global South 7. US West Asia Strategy & Regional Maritime Security 8. Project Cheetah at Kuno National Park & New Lineage 9. Crimes Against Women & Preventive Policing 10. Legislative Privileges (Art 194) vs Fundamental Rights

Correct: 0

Wrong: 0

Score: 0/20

Q1 Expected MCQ

Topic 1: GST Process Reforms & Tech-Enabled Compliance

With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council and recent procedural reforms, consider the following statements:

1.The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Constitution.

2.Every decision of the GST Council is taken by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.

3.The Central Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, while all State Governments combined have a weightage of two-thirds.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 279A was inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, establishing the GST Council.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 279A(9), decisions require a weighted majority of not less than three-fourths (75%) of members present and voting, not two-thirds.
• Statement 3 is correct: Centre has 1/3rd (33.33%) weightage and States collectively hold 2/3rds (66.67%) weightage.

Static Booster (GST Council): The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson, while the Vice-Chairperson is chosen from among the State Finance Ministers.

Q2 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 1: GST Constitutional Provisions

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

1.It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.

2.It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.

3.It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 only

• Statement 1 is correct: GST sub-sumed 17 indirect taxes and 13 cesses, establishing 'One Nation, One Tax, One Market'.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: These are speculative, exaggerated claims. CAD is governed by balance of trade and capital flows, not domestic indirect taxation.

UPSC Concept: Extreme statements asserting automatic overtaking of China or drastic CAD elimination are classic elimination distractors in UPSC Prelims.

Q3 Expected MCQ

Topic 2: One Nation, One Election & Separation of Powers

Regarding the 'One Nation, One Election' (Simultaneous Elections) proposal and the recommendations of the High-Level Committee headed by Ram Nath Kovind, consider the following statements:

1.The Committee recommended holding simultaneous elections to Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies in the first phase, followed by local body elections within 100 days in the second phase.

2.Constitutional amendments required for synchronizing Lok Sabha and State Assembly tenures do not require ratification by State Legislatures under Article 368(2).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

• Statement 1 is correct: The Kovind Committee proposed a two-step transition: Lok Sabha + Assemblies first, then Municipalities/Panchayats within 100 days.
• Statement 2 is correct: The committee noted that amending Articles 83 (Duration of Houses of Parliament) and 172 (Duration of State Legislatures) does not fall under the proviso to Article 368(2) and thus does NOT require ratification by half the State Legislatures (though amending local body provisions will require ratification).

Historical Precedent: India conducted simultaneous elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies in 1952, 1957, 1962, and 1967 before premature dissolutions disrupted the cycle.

Q4 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 2: Parliamentary Committees & Scrutiny

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Committees:

1.A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc committee constituted for a specific purpose and ceases to exist after presenting its report.

2.A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the Committee on Public Accounts or the Committee on Estimates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

• Statement 1 is correct: JPCs are ad-hoc committees set up via motion passed by one House and concurred by the other.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under parliamentary rules, ministers cannot be members of PAC, Estimates Committee, or Committee on Public Undertakings to preserve independent legislative oversight.

Static Booster: Estimates Committee is the largest committee of Parliament (30 members, all from Lok Sabha only).

Q5 Expected MCQ

Topic 3: RBI Monetary Policy Committee & Transmission

Regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:

1.The MPC is a statutory 6-member body constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

2.External members of the MPC hold office for a non-renewable term of four years.

3.The RBI Governor does not possess a casting vote in the event of an equality of votes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: MPC was established under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934.
• Statement 2 is correct: 3 external members are appointed by the Central Government for a term of 4 years and are not eligible for reappointment.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Section 45ZL(3), the Governor has a second or casting vote in case of a tie.

Inflation Target: Under the Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework, the target is 4% CPI inflation with a tolerance band of +/- 2% (2% to 6%).

Q6 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 3: RBI Monetary Policy Committee

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

1.It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.

2.It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.

3.It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (A) 1 only

• Statement 1 is correct: MPC sets the policy repo rate.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: MPC has 6 members (not 12).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson, not the Finance Minister.

Composition (6 Members): 3 from RBI (Governor, Deputy Governor in-charge of MP, one officer) + 3 external members nominated by Central Government.

Q7 Expected MCQ

Topic 4: MoSPI Household Travel Survey & Urban Mobility

With reference to urban mobility and public transportation in India, consider the following statements:

1.Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) focuses on high-density, mixed-use compact development within walking distance of mass transit hubs.

2.Under the PM-eBus Sewa scheme, electric buses are deployed under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model on a Gross Cost Contract (GCC) basis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

• Statement 1 is correct: TOD reduces private vehicle dependency by concentrating housing, offices, and retail within 500–800 meters of transit stations.
• Statement 2 is correct: PM-eBus Sewa operates 10,000 electric buses on GCC model where operators receive fixed per-km fee while city agencies collect fares.

National Urban Transport Policy: Emphasizes "moving people rather than moving vehicles".

Q8 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 4: National Electric Mobility & FAME

The term 'FAME India Scheme' is related to:

A.Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles

B.Financial Assistance to Marginalized Farmers for Irrigation

C.Forest Afforestation and Mangrove Eco-restoration

D.Fast-tracking Aviation Modernization and Expansion

Select the correct answer:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Correct Answer: (A) Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles

• FAME India (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles) was launched by the Ministry of Heavy Industries to incentivize EV purchase and charging infrastructure.

PM E-DRIVE Scheme: Launched in 2024 to succeed FAME-II with enhanced outlay for e-2W, e-3W, e-ambulances, and charging stations.

Q9 Expected MCQ

Topic 5: Public Knowledge Repositories & Heritage

With reference to public libraries and statutory knowledge institutions in India, consider the following statements:

1.Under the Delivery of Books and Newspapers (Public Libraries) Act, 1954, publishers in India are legally mandated to deliver a copy of every published book to four designated National/Public Libraries.

2.Article 49 of the Constitution directs the State to protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest declared by Parliament to be of national importance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

• Statement 1 is correct: 4 designated depository libraries: National Library (Kolkata), Connemara Public Library (Chennai), Asiatic Society (Mumbai), and Delhi Public Library.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 49 is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) for heritage protection.

Central Secretariat Library (CSL): Founded in 1891 (originally Imperial Secretariat Library in Kolkata, shifted to Delhi in 1912).

Q10 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 5: Constitutional DPSPs & Fundamental Duties

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security and protection of monuments are included in:

A.Preamble to the Constitution

B.Directive Principles of State Policy

C.Fundamental Duties

D.Ninth Schedule

Select the correct answer:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Correct Answer: (B) Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)

• Article 49 mandates the protection of monuments and places of national importance, and Article 51 directs the promotion of international peace and security under Part IV (DPSP).

Q11 Expected MCQ

Topic 6: Decentralized Water Governance & 4 Ps Model

With reference to the '4 Ps' framework of community-led water governance and water conservation schemes in India, consider the following statements:

1.The 4 Ps model is built on People (community ownership), Policy, Public Finance, and Partnerships.

2.Under the Jal Jeevan Mission, 'Pani Samitis' (Village Water & Sanitation Committees) are statutory gram panchayat sub-committees responsible for in-village water supply operations and maintenance.

3.Atal Bhujal Yojana is supported by the Asian Development Bank to improve surface water canal irrigation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statements 1 & 2 are correct: The Gujarat model institutionalised Pani Samitis with 50% women representation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Atal Bhujal Yojana is supported by the World Bank (not ADB) and focuses on groundwater management (not surface canal irrigation) across water-stressed districts.

Static Booster: WASMO (Water and Sanitation Management Organisation) in Gujarat won the UN Public Service Award for decentralized drinking water security.

Q12 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 6: Traditional Water Harvesting Systems

With reference to traditional water harvesting systems in India, match the following pairs:

1.Tankas / Kunds — Rajasthan

2.Zings — Ladakh

3.Ahar-Pyne — Bihar

4.Kuhl — Himachal Pradesh

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one pair

Only two pairs

Only three pairs

All four pairs

Correct Answer: (D) All four pairs

• Tankas/Kunds: Underground rainwater cisterns in Thar, Rajasthan.
• Zings: Glacier-melt storage ponds in Ladakh.
• Ahar-Pyne: Traditional floodwater diversion canals & retention reservoirs in Bihar.
• Kuhls: Surface water gravity channels in Himachal Pradesh.

Q13 Expected MCQ

Topic 7: West Asian Security & Maritime Chokepoints

In the context of West Asian maritime trade and geopolitical security, consider the following statements:

1.The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea.

2.The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.

3.'Offshore balancing' is a grand strategy where a major power maintains large-scale permanent military garrisoning in foreign heartlands.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statements 1 & 2 are correct: Bab-el-Mandeb and Hormuz are critical global Sea Lines of Communication (SLOCs).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Offshore balancing involves reducing permanent direct military footprints and relying on regional alliances/partners, intervening only when regional balance of power is threatened.

Strategic Chokepoint: Approximately 20% of global petroleum passes through the Strait of Hormuz.

Q14 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 7: West Asian Geography & Sea Ports

Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

A.Port of Chabahar — Iran

B.Port of Gwadar — Pakistan

C.Port of Duqm — Oman

D.Port of Eilat — Yemen

Select the incorrect pair:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Correct Answer: (D) Port of Eilat is in Israel (not Yemen)

• Port of Eilat: Israel's only port on the Red Sea / Gulf of Aqaba.
• Port of Hodeidah and Port of Aden are located in Yemen.

Q15 Expected MCQ

Topic 8: Project Cheetah & Genetic Lineage

With reference to Project Cheetah in India, consider the following statements:

1.The African Cheetah is categorized as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List, whereas the Asiatic Cheetah is categorized as 'Vulnerable'.

2.Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh is situated in the Vindhyan hills and forms part of the Chambal river basin.

3.The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is the nodal implementing body for the cheetah reintroduction project.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The status is exactly reversed: Asiatic Cheetah is Critically Endangered (surviving only in Iran), while African Cheetah is categorized as Vulnerable.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Kuno is located in Sheopur district (Vindhyan hills / Chambal basin) and NTCA oversees the reintroduction with WII.

Extinction History: Asiatic Cheetah was declared officially extinct in India in 1952.

Q16 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 8: Wildlife Reintroduction & Habitats

Among the following protected areas, which one was originally proposed as a second home for the Asiatic Lion and later selected for Cheetah reintroduction?

A.Kuno National Park

B.Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary

C.Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary

D.Madhav National Park

Select the correct answer:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Correct Answer: (A) Kuno National Park

• Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary was prepared in the 1990s as an alternative habitat for Gir's Asiatic Lions before being designated for Cheetah reintroduction in 2022.

Q17 Expected MCQ

Topic 9: Crimes Against Women & Preventive Policing

Regarding preventive policing mechanisms and institutional frameworks for women's safety in India, consider the following statements:

1.The 'Safe City Project' is an initiative under the Nirbhaya Fund to create a safe, secure and empowering environment for women in public spaces using CCTV surveillance and GIS mapping.

2.Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), recording of victim statements in cases of sexual offences by a woman judicial magistrate is mandatory.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

• Statement 1 is correct: Safe City Project is implemented across major metropolitan cities under the Nirbhaya Fund.
• Statement 2 is correct: Section 183 of BNSS mandates recording of statements by female magistrates and audio-video recording to prevent secondary victimisation.

Q18 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 9: Police Reforms & Prakash Singh Directives

The landmark Supreme Court judgment in 'Prakash Singh vs Union of India' (2006) is associated with:

A.Police Reforms and institutional autonomy of law enforcement agencies

B.Electoral reforms and mandatory declaration of criminal antecedents

C.Prison reforms and undertrial bail guidelines

D.Environmental liability and polluter pays principle

Select the correct answer:

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

Correct Answer: (A) Police Reforms

• In Prakash Singh (2006), the Supreme Court laid down 7 landmark directives: State Security Commission, minimum 2-year tenure for DGP/SP, separation of investigation and law & order, Police Establishment Board, and Police Complaints Authority.

Q19 Expected MCQ

Topic 10: Legislative Privileges vs Fundamental Rights

With reference to Parliamentary and State Legislative Privileges under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1.Article 105 deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members, while Article 194 deals with those of State Legislatures.

2.Members of Parliament enjoy absolute freedom from arrest in civil and criminal matters alike during the continuation of a parliamentary session.

3.No member of a State Legislature is liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

• Statements 1 & 3 are correct: Articles 105(2) and 194(2) confer absolute speech immunity inside the house.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Freedom from arrest applies ONLY to civil cases (40 days before, during, and 40 days after session). It does NOT extend to criminal offences or preventive detention.

Sita Soren Case (2024): 7-judge Constitution Bench held that legislative immunity does NOT protect members from criminal bribery prosecution for voting/speaking.

Q20 UPSC CSE PYQ

Topic 10: Parliamentary Privileges in India

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges in India:

1.Parliamentary privileges are available to the President of India as he is an integral part of the Parliament.

2.Parliamentary privileges extend to the Attorney General of India and Union Ministers when they speak in Parliamentary proceedings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B) 2 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The President of India is an integral part of Parliament (Article 79) but does NOT enjoy parliamentary privileges under Article 105 (President has separate constitutional immunities under Article 361).
• Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 105(4), parliamentary privileges extend to all persons entitled to speak and take part in proceedings (e.g., Attorney General of India and non-MP ministers).

The Indian Express Daily Editorial Quiz (10 Topics • 20 MCQs)

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