PIB Notes – 5 August 2026

📰 PIB Notes – 5 August 2026

📅 Wednesday, 5 August 2026
9 Topics Covered Today
🏛️ Article 370 – 7 Years of Abrogation 🚀 Gaganyaan Mission & BAS ⚛️ Nuclear Energy Mission & BSMR ☢️ Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor 🎨 Lalit Kala Akademi – 72nd Foundation Day 💊 IPC – WHO SEARN Recognition 🌳 Forest Rights Act – Progress Report ⚡ India's EV Ecosystem
Prime Minister's Office
🏛️ Seven Years of Abrogation of Articles 370 & 35(A)
📝 Key Notes
  • PM Narendra Modi marked 7 years since the historic abrogation of Articles 370 and 35(A) on 5 August 2026
    • Described 5th August 2019 as a defining milestone in India's journey towards inclusive development
  • Key transformations cited in J&K and Ladakh over 7 years:
    • Significant expansion of infrastructure
    • New opportunities in education, healthcare, entrepreneurship and sports
    • Women and marginalised communities empowered through full application of the Constitution of India
  • This year's anniversary is significant as India commemorates the 125th birth anniversary of Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee
    • Dr. Mookerjee's lifelong commitment to national unity — "what he envisioned decades ago found historic fulfilment on 5th August 2019"
  • PM reaffirmed commitment to development of J&K and Ladakh, ensuring every citizen can contribute to Viksit Bharat
5 Aug 2019
Abrogation Date of Articles 370 & 35(A)
7 Years
Since Abrogation (as of 2026)
125th
Birth Anniversary of Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee
Viksit Bharat
PM's Vision for J&K & Ladakh
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • Article 370 granted special status to Jammu & Kashmir — abrogated by Parliament on 5 August 2019
  • Article 35A (inserted via Presidential Order 1954) allowed J&K Legislature to define "permanent residents" — also abrogated simultaneously
  • Post-abrogation, J&K was bifurcated into two Union Territories: J&K (with Legislature) and Ladakh (without Legislature)
  • Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee (1901–1953) — founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh; advocated for integration of J&K; died in detention in Srinagar
  • After abrogation, all 890+ Central laws became applicable to J&K, including RTI, RTE, reservation policies
  • Reorganisation Act: Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 — implemented from 31 October 2019
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. Which of the following statements about Articles 370 and 35(A) is/are correct?

1. Article 370 was a permanent provision of the Constitution granting special status to J&K.
2. Article 35A was inserted through a Presidential Order in 1954.
3. Post-abrogation, J&K was bifurcated into two Union Territories — J&K (with Legislature) and Ladakh (without Legislature).
4. The abrogation took place on 5 August 2019.

Select the correct answer:

  • A1 and 2 only✗
  • B2 and 4 only✗
  • C2, 3 and 4 only✓
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4✗
Statement 1 is incorrect — Article 370 was described as a temporary provision (placed in Part XXI of the Constitution titled "Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions"), not permanent. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. Article 35A was indeed inserted via Presidential Order 1954; J&K was bifurcated into two UTs; and abrogation occurred on 5 August 2019.
Department of Space – ISRO
🚀 Gaganyaan Mission & Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)
📝 Key Notes
  • Gaganyaan Mission — India's Human Spaceflight Programme
    • Budgetary allocation: ₹20,193 crore for 8 missions (approved by Union Cabinet, September 2024)
    • Launch Vehicle: HLVM3 (Human Rated Launch Vehicle Mark 3) — all propulsion stages and structures developed and tested
  • Key systems developed and tested:
    • Crew Escape System (CES): 5 types of motors developed and static tested; all CES structures realised and qualified
    • ECLSS (Environmental Control & Life Support System): Engineering model realised
    • Deceleration system, Crew Module Up-righting System, Thermal Protection System and end-to-end avionics developed and tested
  • Test missions completed:
    • TV-D1: Inflight validation of CES — successfully completed
    • IADT-01 and IADT-02 (Integrated Air Drop Tests): Validation of deceleration system — completed
    • TV-D2: Activities in progress
  • Timeline:
    • First uncrewed experimental mission (with Vyommitra half-humanoid): Targeted in Q4 of 2026
    • Two more uncrewed missions: Targeted by 2027
    • First crewed mission (Gaganyaan): Targeted in 2027
  • Gaganyatris:
    • Completed generic training at Glavkosmos, Russia
    • Mission-specific training ongoing at Astronaut Training Facility, Bengaluru
    • First batch trained at Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Centre (Russia)
  • Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS):
    • Operationalisation targeted by 2035
    • Configuration: 5 modules
    • Government approved development and launch of 1st module (BAS-01)
  • International Collaborations:
    • ESA — Network operations support for Gaganyaan missions
    • Australian Space Agency (ASA) — Crew and Crew Module Recovery cooperation
    • CNES (France) — Training of ISRO Flight Surgeons and Ground Support Teams
    • Roscosmos (Russia) — MoU for joint human spaceflight activities; delivery of Crew Seat, Viewport, Flight Suits, Wind Tunnel Testing
  • Critical technologies being indigenously developed: Flight suit, viewport, crew seat, docking technology
  • Informed by MoS Dr. Jitendra Singh in written reply in Lok Sabha
₹20,193 Cr
Budget for 8 Gaganyaan Missions
2027
Target Year for First Crewed Mission
Q4 2026
First Uncrewed Mission (with Vyommitra)
2035
BAS Operationalisation Target
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • Vyommitra is a female-looking half-humanoid robot developed by ISRO — designed to simulate astronaut functions in space
  • HLVM3 = Human Rated LVM3 — adapted from ISRO's workhorse rocket LVM3 (formerly GSLV Mk III)
  • Gaganyatris = India's astronauts for the Gaganyaan mission; selected from Indian Air Force
  • IDRSS-1 = Indian Data Relay Satellite System — provides continuous communication coverage for Gaganyaan
  • Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Centre is located in Star City, near Moscow, Russia
  • BAS — India's own space station; 5-module design; 1st module (BAS-01) approved for development
  • CES (Crew Escape System) — critical safety mechanism that separates the crew module from the rocket in case of emergency during launch
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. Consider the following about the Gaganyaan mission:

1. TV-D1 was the first test vehicle mission for inflight validation of the Crew Escape System.
2. Vyommitra is a full humanoid robot to be used in the first crewed Gaganyaan mission.
3. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station is planned to have 5 modules and be operational by 2035.
4. Gaganyatri training was conducted at the Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Centre in Russia.

Which of the above are CORRECT?

  • A1 and 2 only✗
  • B2 and 3 only✗
  • C1, 3 and 4 only✓
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4✗
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect — Vyommitra is a half-humanoid (not full humanoid) robot, and she will be used in the first uncrewed experimental mission (Q4 2026), not the first crewed mission. The first crewed mission is targeted for 2027.
Department of Atomic Energy
⚛️ Nuclear Energy Mission & Bharat Small Modular Reactors (BSMRs)
📝 Key Notes
  • Nuclear Energy Mission announced in Union Budget 2025-26
    • Total budgetary provision: ₹20,000 crore for design, development and deployment of SMRs
    • Target: At least 5 indigenous SMRs by 2033
  • Three SMR designs being developed by BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre):
    • BSMR-200 (220 MWe) — Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR) based; site approved: Tarapur, Maharashtra
    • SMR-55 (55 MWe) — Pressurised Water Reactor design; site approved: Tarapur, Maharashtra
    • HTGCR (up to 5 MWth) — High Temperature Gas Cooled Reactor; for process heat and hydrogen production via copper-chlorine thermochemical cycle; proposed site: BARC, Vizag
  • Status of BSMR-200:
    • In-principle approval for engineering and construction received
    • Cleared by Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) and Empowered Technology Group (ETG)
    • Site approved: Tarapur, Maharashtra
  • Each SMR requires 60 to 72 months for establishment after administrative and financial sanction
  • SHANTI Act 2025 (Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India Act):
    • Enables participation of government-owned as well as private entities in nuclear energy sector
    • Target: 100 GW of nuclear power by 2047 (for Viksit Bharat)
    • Will come into force once notified
  • Indigenous material: ApuRVA (Advanced Purified Reactor Vessel Alloy) developed indigenously for reactor pressure vessels of BSMR-200 and SMR-55
  • Informed by MoS Dr. Jitendra Singh in Lok Sabha
₹20,000 Cr
Budget for SMR Development
5 SMRs by 2033
Indigenous SMR Target
100 GW
Nuclear Power Target by 2047 (SHANTI Act)
60–72 Months
Time for SMR Establishment after Sanction
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre) — India's premier nuclear research institution, headquartered in Trombay, Mumbai
  • SMR (Small Modular Reactor) — reactors with output typically up to 300 MWe; modular design allows factory manufacturing and on-site assembly
  • HTGCR uses copper-chlorine thermochemical cycle for hydrogen production — a clean hydrogen production pathway
  • SHANTI Act 2025 is a landmark legislation opening India's nuclear sector to private players for the first time
  • PWR (Pressurized Water Reactor) — most common type of nuclear reactor globally; uses pressurized light water as coolant and moderator
  • Tarapur — location of India's first nuclear power station; in Palghar district, Maharashtra
  • ApuRVA — indigenously developed special material for reactor pressure vessels; marks India's self-reliance in critical nuclear materials
  • AEC (Atomic Energy Commission) — highest policy-making body for atomic energy in India; chaired by the Prime Minister
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. With reference to India's Small Modular Reactor (SMR) programme, consider the following statements:

1. BARC is developing three SMR variants: BSMR-200, SMR-55, and HTGCR.
2. The site approved for BSMR-200 and SMR-55 is Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.
3. The HTGCR is designed to produce hydrogen through the copper-chlorine thermochemical cycle.
4. The SHANTI Act 2025 aims to enable private sector participation in nuclear energy.

Which statements are CORRECT?

  • A1 and 3 only✗
  • B2 and 4 only✗
  • C1, 3 and 4 only✓
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4✗
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect — the AEC-approved site for both BSMR-200 and SMR-55 is Tarapur, Maharashtra, not Kalpakkam. Kalpakkam is the site of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR).
Department of Atomic Energy
☢️ Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) & India's Three-Stage Nuclear Programme
📝 Key Notes
  • PFBR at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu successfully attained its first criticality on 6 April 2026
    • A major milestone in realising Dr. Homi J. Bhabha's three-stage nuclear power programme
    • PFBR is the forerunner for the second stage of India's three-stage nuclear programme
    • India's first commercial fast reactor
  • PFBR fuel and design:
    • Uses Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel
    • Surrounded by a blanket of Uranium-238 — breeds fissile Plutonium-239
    • Generates more fuel than it consumes (breeder reactor)
    • Designed to eventually use Thorium-232 in the blanket → converted to Uranium-233 (for Stage 3)
  • Principal architect: IGCAR (Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research) — constituent unit of DAE
    • Key contribution: DISHA — remote-controlled robotic vehicle for inspecting critical welds at high temperatures
    • Under-Sodium Ultrasonic Imaging tool deployed for fuel loading
    • Nearly 90% domestic manufacturing for PFBR's equipment and systems
  • India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme:
    • Stage 1: Natural uranium as fuel in PHWRs (Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors) → reprocess spent fuel to recover plutonium
    • Stage 2: U-238 bred into Pu-239 in Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) using reprocessed Pu-239 as fuel
    • Stage 3: Large-scale utilisation of Thorium using U-233 bred from thorium in breeder reactor
  • Fleet of 10 indigenous PHWRs (700 MW each) = 7,000 MW total — under various stages of implementation
    • Includes Mahi Banswara Project (4 × 700 MW) — implemented by ASHVINI (subsidiary of NPCIL, JV of NPCIL & NTPC)
    • Kaiga-5&6 (2 × 700 MW) — First Pour of Concrete completed
  • Present installed nuclear capacity: 8,780 MW → to reach 22,480 MW by 2031/32
    • Includes 500 MW PFBR implemented by BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited)
  • AMD (Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research) has established 4,42,800 tonnes in-situ U₃O₈ reserves across 11 states
6 Apr 2026
PFBR First Criticality Date
Kalpakkam
PFBR Location (Tamil Nadu)
8,780 MW → 22,480 MW
Nuclear Capacity (Now → 2031/32)
90%
Domestic Manufacturing for PFBR
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • PFBR = 500 MWe capacity; implemented by BHAVINI (under DAE)
  • IGCAR headquartered at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu — specialises in fast reactor technology
  • India's thorium reserves are among the world's largest — concentrated in beach sands (monazite) mainly in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh
  • "First criticality" = the point when a nuclear reactor achieves a sustained, self-propagating chain reaction for the first time
  • AMD (Atomic Minerals Directorate) — under DAE; headquartered in Hyderabad
  • PHWR uses heavy water (D₂O) as both moderator and coolant — India's indigenous reactor design
  • NPCIL (Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited) — under DAE; operates all commercial nuclear power plants in India
  • Three-Stage programme was conceived by Dr. Homi J. Bhabha — "Father of India's Nuclear Programme"
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements about India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme:

1. In Stage 1, natural uranium is used as fuel in Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors.
2. In Stage 2, Fast Breeder Reactors use reprocessed Plutonium-239 as fuel.
3. In Stage 3, Thorium-232 is converted to Uranium-233 for use as fuel.
4. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam represents the completion of Stage 3.

Which statements are CORRECT?

  • A1 and 2 only✗
  • B1, 2 and 3 only✓
  • C2 and 4 only✗
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4✗
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect — PFBR represents the forerunner for Stage 2 (Fast Breeder Reactors), NOT Stage 3. Stage 3 involves large-scale thorium utilisation which will follow only after adequate FBR capacity is installed.
Ministry of Culture
🎨 Lalit Kala Akademi – 72nd Foundation Day
📝 Key Notes
  • Lalit Kala Akademi (National Academy of Art) celebrated its 72nd Foundation Day on 5 August 2026
    • Venue: Rabindra Bhavan, New Delhi
    • Chief Guest: Shri K.K. Mishra, Joint Secretary, Ministry of Culture
  • Two publications released on the occasion:
    • "Chitrakar Kanu Desai"
    • "Kalaguru Ravishankar Raval"
    • Both authored by Shri Kanaiyalal Fakirchand Patel (Kanu Patel), published by Lalit Kala Akademi
  • Celebrations held at multiple Regional Centres:
    • Bhubaneswar — Watercolour Painting Workshop
    • Kolkata — Exhibition "Maryada Purushottam Shri Ram"
    • Chennai — Painting demonstration by research scholar Shri Bhagvan S. Chavan
    • Lucknow — Lecture and Cultural Evening
    • Agartala (NERC) — Serigraphy (Silk Screen Printing) Workshop; produced 250 cloth bags bearing Akademi logo
    • Ahmedabad — Interactive artists' discussion
    • Patna — Tree plantation programme
    • Shimla — Painting workshop for students of Kendriya Vidyalaya, Jakhu Hills
  • Lalit Kala Akademi — established in 1954; promotes visual arts through exhibitions, workshops, scholarships, publications, and research
1954
Lalit Kala Akademi Established
72nd
Foundation Day Celebrated (2026)
Rabindra Bhavan
Venue, New Delhi
8 Regional Centres
Celebrations Across India
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • Lalit Kala Akademi is one of India's three national academies — the other two are Sahitya Akademi (literature) and Sangeet Natak Akademi (performing arts)
  • All three national academies were established in 1954
  • Rabindra Bhavan in New Delhi — hosts the administrative offices of all three national akademies
  • Serigraphy (Silk Screen Printing) — a printmaking technique using a woven mesh to support an ink-blocking stencil
  • Lalit Kala Akademi's highest honour is the National Award given annually to outstanding visual artists
  • Lalit Kala Akademi also organises National Exhibition of Art — India's most prestigious art exhibition
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. Which of the following correctly pairs India's three national academies with their domains?

1. Lalit Kala Akademi — Visual Arts
2. Sahitya Akademi — Performing Arts
3. Sangeet Natak Akademi — Literature

Select the correct code:

  • A1 only✗
  • B1 and 2 only✗
  • C2 and 3 only✗
  • D1 only (2 and 3 are incorrectly paired)✓
Only Statement 1 is correctly paired. Sahitya Akademi deals with Literature (not Performing Arts). Sangeet Natak Akademi deals with Performing Arts (music, dance, drama) — not literature. All three were established in 1954 under the Ministry of Culture.
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
💊 IPC Recognised by WHO SEARN as Regional Centre of Excellence
📝 Key Notes
  • Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) participated in the 10th Anniversary Meeting of WHO SEARN
    • Meeting held in Kathmandu, Nepal on 4–5 August 2026
    • SEARN = South-East Asia Regulatory Network — established by WHO-SEARO in 2016
  • IPC received two prestigious recognitions:
    • WHO-SEARN Regional Centre of Excellence in Pharmacovigilance
    • Technical Centre in Quality of Medicines
  • IPC's key initiatives showcased:
    • Development of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) and Indian Pharmacopoeia Reference Substances (IPRS)
    • PvPI (Pharmacovigilance Programme of India) — drug safety monitoring
    • MvPI (Materiovigilance Programme of India) — medical device safety monitoring
    • Impurity Reference Standards (IMPRS)
  • SEARN operates through thematic working groups covering: quality assurance, pharmacovigilance, clinical trials oversight, regulatory preparedness, medical device regulation
  • IPC is under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
WHO-SEARN
South-East Asia Regulatory Network (since 2016)
Kathmandu
10th Anniversary Meeting Venue (Nepal)
2 Recognitions
CoE in Pharmacovigilance + Technical Centre (Quality)
PvPI + MvPI
IPC's Vigilance Programmes
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • IPC (Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission) — HQ: Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh; under Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
  • Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) — official document setting quality standards for medicines manufactured and sold in India
  • Pharmacovigilance — science and activities relating to detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse drug reactions
  • Materiovigilance — monitoring of adverse events related to medical devices
  • WHO-SEARO = WHO South-East Asia Regional Office — covers 11 Member States including India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Indonesia, etc.
  • PvPI was launched in 2010 — IPC is the National Coordination Centre for PvPI
  • SEARN established in 2016 — facilitates regulatory convergence, knowledge sharing and reliance mechanisms among NRAs in the South-East Asia Region
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. Which of the following correctly describes the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)?

1. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
2. It publishes the Indian Pharmacopoeia which sets quality standards for medicines in India.
3. It operates the Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI) for drug safety monitoring.
4. Its headquarters is in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

Which of the above are CORRECT?

  • A1 and 4 only✗
  • B1, 2 and 3 only✓
  • C2 and 3 only✗
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4✗
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect — IPC is headquartered in Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh, not Mumbai. IPC is the autonomous body under MoHFW that publishes the Indian Pharmacopoeia and coordinates the PvPI for adverse drug reaction monitoring.
Ministry of Tribal Affairs
🌳 Forest Rights Act (FRA) – Implementation Progress
📝 Key Notes
  • MoS Tribal Affairs Shri Durgadas Uikey informed Rajya Sabha about FRA implementation status (FY 2023-24 to FY 2025-26)
    • Period covered: 01.04.2023 to 31.03.2026
  • Claims data (FY 2023-24 to FY 2025-26):
    • Total claims filed: 8,56,159 (8,21,908 Individual + 34,251 Community)
    • Claims approved/titles distributed: 2,34,352 (2,18,899 Individual + 15,453 Community)
    • Claims rejected: 14,462 (13,756 Individual + 706 Community)
  • Key provisions of FRA (Forest Rights Act, 2006):
    • Implementation responsibility: State Governments and UT Administrations
    • MoTA compiles Monthly Progress Report (MPR) from States/UTs
    • No prescribed time-limit for disposal of claims under FRA rules
  • Major reasons for rejection of claims:
    • Claimed land not occupied before 13th December 2005 (cut-off date)
    • Duplicate claims filed on the same land
    • Claims on Non-Forest Land
    • Lack of evidence
8,56,159
Total Claims Filed (FY23-24 to FY25-26)
2,34,352
Claims Approved / Titles Distributed
14,462
Claims Rejected
13 Dec 2005
Cut-off Date for Land Occupation (FRA)
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • FRA 2006 full name: Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
  • Cut-off date: 13 December 2005 — claimants must prove continuous residence/occupation of forest land before this date
  • FRA recognises two types of rights: Individual Forest Rights (IFR) and Community Forest Rights (CFR)
  • Gram Sabha is the primary authority for receiving, consolidating and verifying claims under FRA
  • OTFDs (Other Traditional Forest Dwellers) — non-tribal communities who have depended on forests for 75 years before December 2005 are also covered
  • FRA aims to undo historical injustice done to forest-dwelling STs and OTFDs — described as "historical injustice" in the Preamble of the Act
  • MoTA (Ministry of Tribal Affairs) monitors implementation but execution is by State Governments
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, what is the cut-off date before which a claimant must prove continuous occupation of forest land to be eligible for Individual Forest Rights?

  • A26 January 2000✗
  • B13 December 2005✓
  • C1 January 2006✗
  • D29 December 2006✗
The correct cut-off date under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 is 13 December 2005. Claimants must demonstrate that they or their ancestors were in actual occupation of forest land before this date. Claims are rejected if the land was occupied after this date. This is also the most common reason for rejection cited in PIB data.
PIB Backgrounder – Ministry of Heavy Industries
⚡ India's Electric Vehicle (EV) Ecosystem – Roads Reimagined
📝 Key Notes
  • India's EV market has grown ~46 times since 2016
    • From ~50,000 EVs sold in 2016 → 2.3 million units in 2025
    • EV penetration: from 0.08% (FY15-16) to 8.26% (FY25-26)
    • EV exports: USD 1.2 million (2020) → USD 84 million (2024); top destinations: Nepal, Indonesia, Japan
  • India's EV journey began in 2015 with NEMMP 2020 and FAME India Scheme
    • FAME Phase I: until March 2019; Phase II: until April 2024
    • FAME = Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India
  • Four types of EVs: BEV (Battery), HEV (Hybrid), PHEV (Plug-in Hybrid), FCEV (Fuel Cell)
  • Key Policy Interventions:
    • PM E-DRIVE Scheme (2024): ₹10,900 crore outlay; covers e-2Ws, e-3Ws, e-trucks, e-buses, e-ambulances; 22.12 lakh EVs sold so far (target: 28 lakh)
      • ₹4,391 crore for 14,028 e-buses in 7 major cities
      • ₹2,000 crore for nationwide EV charging infrastructure
    • PLI-Auto Scheme (2021): ₹2,377.56 crore disbursed; ₹2,319.88 crore to EV manufacturers
    • PLI-ACC Scheme (2021): ₹18,100 crore; target: 50 GWh ACC manufacturing capacity
    • SPMEPCI Scheme (2024): Minimum investment ₹4,150 crore; 25% DVA in year 3, 50% in year 5
    • PM e-Bus Sewa–PSM Scheme (2024): 10,000 electric buses via PPP model; payment security up to 12 years
    • National Mission on Manufacturing (NMM 2025): EVs as key "seed" sector; targets manufacturing GDP to 25% by 2035
    • Delhi-NCR EV Scheme (June 2026): ₹9,585 crore; replace ~2.07 lakh commercial vehicles (1.91 lakh trucks + 16,329 buses)
  • India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) launched by NITI Aayog in August 2025
    • Evaluates 16 indicators across 3 pillars: transport electrification, charging infrastructure readiness, EV R&I
    • Frontrunners: Delhi, Maharashtra, Chandigarh
  • EV Charging Infrastructure (as of July 2026):
    • 52,718 public charging stations; 16,561 with fast charging
    • Target: 1.32 million charging stations by 2030
  • Market outlook:
    • India EV market: USD 3.71 billion (2025) → projected USD 191.04 billion by 2034 (CAGR 54.94%)
    • India targets 30% EV sales by 2030 (EV30@30 initiative)
    • EV attracts concessional GST of 5%
  • Upcoming CAFE norms:
    • CAFE III (2027-2032): 91.7 g CO₂/km
    • CAFE IV (2033-2037): 70 g CO₂/km
  • Largest EV market in 2025: Uttar Pradesh (4 lakh+ units; 18% of national sales)
    • Followed by Maharashtra (12%) and Karnataka (9%)
  • "e VITARA" — Suzuki's first Made-in-India global strategic BEV; to be exported to 100+ countries including Europe and Japan (inaugurated August 2025)
  • ~400 EV startups currently operating in India
  • India's EV ecosystem investment: USD 1.4 billion+ in FY2025 (~27% higher than 2024); Delhi = top city for EV investments
46x Growth
EV Sales Since 2016 (50K → 2.3M in 2025)
₹10,900 Cr
PM E-DRIVE Scheme Outlay
8.26%
EV Penetration in FY25-26
52,718
Public EV Charging Stations (Jul 2026)
₹18,100 Cr
PLI-ACC Scheme (50 GWh Target)
USD 191 Bn
Projected EV Market by 2034
📌 Prelims Extra Points
  • FAME India launched in 2015 under NEMMP 2020 — first dedicated EV incentive scheme in India
  • ACC (Advanced Chemistry Cell) — new-generation energy storage technology; batteries account for 35–40% of an EV's total cost
  • EV30@30 — global initiative aiming for 30% of all vehicle sales to be electric by 2030
  • CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency) norms introduced in India in 2017
  • Phased Manufacturing Programme (PMP) under PM E-DRIVE mandates domestic manufacturing of specified EV components — supports Make in India
  • BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited) involved in EV charging infrastructure — 16,561 fast charging stations as of July 2026
  • e-Amrit portal by NITI Aayog — helps locate EV charging stations based on location
  • India targets net zero by 2070 — EVs are a key component of India's climate strategy
  • Transport sector accounts for approximately 9% of India's total GHG emissions
  • GST on EVs: 5% (concessional rate); conventional vehicles attract higher rates (28% + cess)
❓ Practice MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements about India's Electric Vehicle (EV) policy ecosystem:

1. The FAME India scheme was launched in 2015 under the NEMMP 2020 framework.
2. The PLI-ACC scheme has an outlay of ₹18,100 crore targeting 50 GWh of battery manufacturing capacity.
3. EVs in India attract a concessional GST rate of 12%.
4. The India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) was launched by NITI Aayog in August 2025.

Which of the above are CORRECT?

  • A1 and 3 only✗
  • B1, 2 and 4 only✓
  • C2 and 4 only✗
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4✗
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect — EVs in India attract a concessional GST rate of 5%, not 12%. This 5% rate applies to all electric cars, two-wheelers, and three-wheelers, making them significantly cheaper to tax than conventional vehicles (which attract 28% + cess).
PIB Notes – 5 August 2026  |  Source: Press Information Bureau, Government of India  |  8 Topics Covered
For UPSC CSE preparation. Always verify facts from official sources before use.
pib notes for upsc

PIB Notes 5 August 2026 – UPSC Current Affairs

PIB Notes 5 August 2026 provides exam-focused current affairs prepared from official Press Information Bureau (PIB) releases. The notes are designed for UPSC Prelims, GS Mains, State PSC, SSC and other competitive examinations with static-current integration.

Major Topics Covered

  • Seven Years of Abrogation of Articles 370 & 35(A)
  • Gaganyaan Mission & Bharatiya Antariksha Station (BAS)
  • Nuclear Energy Mission & Bharat Small Modular Reactor (BSMR)
  • Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)
  • Lalit Kala Akademi – 72nd Foundation Day
  • IPC – WHO SEARN Recognition
  • Forest Rights Act Progress Report
  • India's Electric Vehicle (EV) Ecosystem

Why Read PIB Notes?

PIB Notes 5 August 2026 presents authentic government information with important facts, schemes, reports, committees, ministries and constitutional provisions that are frequently asked in UPSC Prelims and useful for GS Mains answer writing.

Revise PIB Notes 5 August 2026 regularly to strengthen your current affairs preparation for UPSC, TNPSC, SSC, Banking, Railways and other competitive examinations.

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