📰 PIB Notes for UPSC – 10 August 2026
Daily PIB Current Affairs | UPSC & SSC Exam Preparation
Today's PIB Notes for UPSC covers 11 key topics —
National Scholarship Portal for Agriculture Students (NSP-DBT), Promotion of Indian Classical Dances (CCRT & CTSS),
Independence Day 2026 – 150 Years of Vande Mataram, Asiatic Lion Population Rise to 891,
11 New E-Visa International Ports (Total 88), PM SVANidhi Scheme Socio-Economic Impact,
National Rivers Interlinking Programme (Ken-Betwa), Unusual Ozone Layer over North Bay of Bengal,
NAVYA Programme for Adolescent Girls, SMILE Scheme – 2,824 Children Rehabilitated,
and PAIMANA Infrastructure Monitoring Platform.
✅ Tap any option to instantly see the answer! MCQs are UPSC Prelims standard. Facts verified from PIB.
✅ Tap any option to instantly see the answer! MCQs are UPSC Prelims standard. Facts verified from PIB.
Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
🌾 National Scholarship Portal Launched for Agriculture Students – ₹21.35 Crore via DBT
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- Union Agriculture Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan released scholarship and fellowship funds for agriculture students through the National Scholarship Portal (NSP) at ICAR-IARI, Pusa on 10 August 2026.
- 6,000+ students received ₹21.35 crore directly through DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer).
- Scholarships will now be released every month directly through DBT — ensuring timely, hassle-free financial support.
- Key Emphasis by Shri Chouhan:
- Scholarships strengthen agricultural education and connect it with practical learning.
- Classroom learning alone cannot produce good farmers, scientists or agri-entrepreneurs — hands-on training is essential.
- Students urged to pursue innovation, startups and research, not just employment.
- "Fields, farmers and science working together can strengthen India's food security."
- NSP-DBT will make scholarship distribution more transparent, faster and seamless.
- On Hariyali Amavasya, Minister appealed to ICAR institution students across the country to participate in plantation drives.
- NSP-DBT integrates agricultural education with technology, training and industry orientation.
- Dignitaries present: MoS Shri Bhagirath Choudhary, ICAR DG Dr. M.L. Jat, IARI Director Dr. C. Srinivasa Rao.
6,000+
Agriculture students received scholarships
₹21.35 Cr
Disbursed via DBT in single release
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- ICAR: Indian Council of Agricultural Research; est. 16 July 1929; HQ New Delhi; apex body for agricultural research, education and extension in India.
- ICAR-IARI: Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Pusa, New Delhi; est. 1905; premier agri-research institute; also called "Agricultural University of India."
- DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer): Launched 1 January 2013; transfers subsidies/scholarships directly to Aadhaar-linked bank accounts; eliminates middlemen.
- NSP (National Scholarship Portal): One-stop digital portal for scholarship application, verification and disbursal; managed by MeitY (Ministry of Electronics & IT); uses Aadhaar-based eKYC.
- India's agricultural higher education: 74 State Agricultural Universities (SAUs) + 4 Deemed-to-be Universities + 3 Central Agricultural Universities — all under ICAR.
- Hariyali Amavasya: New moon (Amavasya) of Shravan month; observed as tree-plantation day across India; promotes green cover.
- Agricultural education comes under Concurrent List (List III) of Constitution.
- PM-KISAN: ₹6,000/year in 3 instalments via DBT; another flagship DBT scheme for farmers, launched 2019.
❓ MCQ Practice
🎯 Medium
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanism in India:
1. DBT was launched on 1 January 2013 in India.
2. DBT transfers subsidies directly into Aadhaar-linked bank accounts of beneficiaries.
3. The National Scholarship Portal (NSP) is managed by the Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: DBT was launched on 1 January 2013 in India to eliminate middlemen in subsidy delivery.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: DBT transfers funds directly into Aadhaar-linked bank accounts of beneficiaries — ensures transparency and reduces leakage.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: The National Scholarship Portal (NSP) is managed by MeitY (Ministry of Electronics & IT), NOT the Ministry of Education. It is a one-stop digital platform for scholarship application and disbursal using Aadhaar-based eKYC. Agriculture Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched NSP-DBT for agri-students at ICAR-IARI, Pusa on 10 August 2026, disbursing ₹21.35 crore to 6,000+ students.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: DBT transfers funds directly into Aadhaar-linked bank accounts of beneficiaries — ensures transparency and reduces leakage.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: The National Scholarship Portal (NSP) is managed by MeitY (Ministry of Electronics & IT), NOT the Ministry of Education. It is a one-stop digital platform for scholarship application and disbursal using Aadhaar-based eKYC. Agriculture Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched NSP-DBT for agri-students at ICAR-IARI, Pusa on 10 August 2026, disbursing ₹21.35 crore to 6,000+ students.
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q2. Which of the following correctly describes the structure of India's agricultural higher education?
1. ICAR was established in 1929 as the apex body for agri-research and education.
2. India has 74 State Agricultural Universities (SAUs) under ICAR.
3. ICAR-IARI at Pusa was established in 1905 and is India's premier agricultural research institute.
4. Agricultural education in India falls under the Union List of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) was established on 16 July 1929; HQ New Delhi; apex body for agri-research, education, and extension.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: India has 74 State Agricultural Universities (SAUs) + 4 Deemed-to-be Universities + 3 Central Agricultural Universities under ICAR.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: ICAR-IARI (Indian Agricultural Research Institute) at Pusa, New Delhi was established in 1905; India's premier agri-research institute.
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: Agricultural education falls under the Concurrent List (List III) of the Constitution — both Centre and States can legislate. Agriculture per se (farming/cultivation) is a State subject (List II, Entry 14).
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: India has 74 State Agricultural Universities (SAUs) + 4 Deemed-to-be Universities + 3 Central Agricultural Universities under ICAR.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: ICAR-IARI (Indian Agricultural Research Institute) at Pusa, New Delhi was established in 1905; India's premier agri-research institute.
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: Agricultural education falls under the Concurrent List (List III) of the Constitution — both Centre and States can legislate. Agriculture per se (farming/cultivation) is a State subject (List II, Entry 14).
Ministry of Culture
💃 Promotion of Indian Classical Dances – CCRT, CTSS Scheme & SYA Scheme
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- Government promotes classical dances in school education aligned with NEP 2020 — which emphasizes art-integrated, experiential and multidisciplinary learning.
- CCRT (Centre for Cultural Resources and Training): Autonomous body under Ministry of Culture; conducts dance training for teachers/students of Govt/Govt-aided schools.
- In MP: Kathak, Rai, Matki, Karma, Grida.
- Regional Centre at Damoh (MP).
- Kala Dharohar Series: By Sangeet Natak Akademi — lectures, workshops and performances for school children.
- CTSS (Cultural Talent Search Scholarship Scheme):
- For students aged 10–14 years; includes children from traditional performing arts families.
- Each scholar: ₹3,600/year + tuition fee reimbursement up to ₹9,000/year.
- Initially 2 years; renewable on satisfactory progress.
- CTSS Scholarships in Classical Dance (last 5 years): 2021-22: 225 | 2022-23: 178 | 2023-24: 289 | 2024-25: 269 | 2025-26: 313.
- SYA Scheme (Scholarships to Young Artists in Different Cultural Fields):
- Age: 18–25 years; ₹5,000/month for 2 years for advanced training.
- Grants Released to Autonomous Orgs (₹ Crore): 2021-22: ₹106.94 | 2022-23: ₹114.81 | 2023-24: ₹123.62 | 2024-25: ₹169.55 | 2025-26: ₹150.61.
- SYA Funds (₹ Crore): 2021-22: ₹3.90 | 2022-23: ₹1.19 | 2023-24: ₹4.52 | 2024-25: ₹3.26 | 2025-26: ₹5.38.
- Information given by Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat (Union Culture Minister) in Lok Sabha.
313
CTSS scholarships in Classical Dance (2025-26)
₹5,000/month
SYA Scholarship for artists aged 18–25 years
₹3,600/yr
CTSS annual scholarship (10–14 age group)
₹150.61 Cr
Grants to cultural orgs (2025-26)
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- NEP 2020: Released July 2020; replaced NPE 1986; emphasizes art-integrated learning, mother-tongue medium up to Grade 5, multidisciplinary approach, reduction of curriculum load.
- CCRT: Est. 1979; autonomous body under Ministry of Culture; HQ New Delhi; promotes art and cultural education.
- Sangeet Natak Akademi: India's national academy for music, dance and drama; est. 1952; India's first national academy; bestows Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Ratna Puraskar.
- Kalakshetra Foundation: Est. 1936 by Rukmini Devi Arundale at Chennai; renowned for Bharatanatyam; declared Institution of National Importance.
- 8 Classical Dances recognized by Sangeet Natak Akademi: Bharatanatyam (TN), Kathak (North India), Kuchipudi (AP), Manipuri (Manipur), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), Odissi (Odisha), Kathakali (Kerala), Sattriya (Assam).
- UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage — India's dance forms: Kutiyattam (2008); Chhau (2010); Ramlila — not dance per se but performing art.
- All schemes under Kala Sanskriti Vikas Yojana (KSVY) umbrella.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following pairs of Indian Classical Dances and their states of origin:
1. Sattriya — Assam
2. Mohiniyattam — Tamil Nadu
3. Kuchipudi — Andhra Pradesh
4. Kathakali — Kerala
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Pair 1 ✅ CORRECT: Sattriya originates from Assam; founded by Srimanta Sankardeva in the 15th century; received classical status in 2000.
Pair 2 ❌ INCORRECT: Mohiniyattam originates from Kerala (not Tamil Nadu). It is a graceful solo female dance form of Kerala. Tamil Nadu's classical dance is Bharatanatyam.
Pair 3 ✅ CORRECT: Kuchipudi originates from Andhra Pradesh (village of Kuchelapuram). It combines dance, music and acting.
Pair 4 ✅ CORRECT: Kathakali originates from Kerala; known for elaborate costumes and facial makeup (Chutti); themes from Ramayana, Mahabharata. India has 8 Sangeet Natak Akademi-recognized classical dances.
Pair 2 ❌ INCORRECT: Mohiniyattam originates from Kerala (not Tamil Nadu). It is a graceful solo female dance form of Kerala. Tamil Nadu's classical dance is Bharatanatyam.
Pair 3 ✅ CORRECT: Kuchipudi originates from Andhra Pradesh (village of Kuchelapuram). It combines dance, music and acting.
Pair 4 ✅ CORRECT: Kathakali originates from Kerala; known for elaborate costumes and facial makeup (Chutti); themes from Ramayana, Mahabharata. India has 8 Sangeet Natak Akademi-recognized classical dances.
🎯 Medium
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q2. The Cultural Talent Search Scholarship (CTSS) Scheme implemented by CCRT provides scholarships primarily for:
1. Students in the age group of 10–14 years.
2. Students enrolled in recognized schools, including children from traditional performing arts families.
3. Students at the postgraduate level in classical arts.
4. Young artists in the 18–25 age group for advanced training.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: CTSS targets students aged 10–14 years; provides ₹3,600/year + tuition reimbursement up to ₹9,000/year.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Includes children from traditional performing arts families enrolled in recognized schools.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: CTSS is NOT for postgraduate-level students. It is for school-level students (10–14 years).
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The 18–25 age group is covered under a separate scheme — SYA (Scholarships to Young Artists in Different Cultural Fields), which provides ₹5,000/month for 2 years. CTSS and SYA are two distinct schemes under Ministry of Culture.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Includes children from traditional performing arts families enrolled in recognized schools.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: CTSS is NOT for postgraduate-level students. It is for school-level students (10–14 years).
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The 18–25 age group is covered under a separate scheme — SYA (Scholarships to Young Artists in Different Cultural Fields), which provides ₹5,000/month for 2 years. CTSS and SYA are two distinct schemes under Ministry of Culture.
Ministry of Defence
🇮🇳 Independence Day 2026 – '150 Years of Vande Mataram' & 'Yuva Shakti for Viksit Bharat@2047'
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- India marks its 80th Independence Day on 15 August 2026; PM Modi leads celebrations from Red Fort, Delhi.
- Theme: 150 Years of Vande Mataram + Yuva Shakti for Viksit Bharat@2047.
- Historic First: Vande Mataram to be sung from ramparts of Red Fort for the very first time — upon PM's arrival. Mi-17 helicopter (IAF) will shower flower petals.
- Floral decoration: 2,500 NCC cadets + MY Bharat volunteers forming 'वंदे मातरम्' on Gyanpath opposite Rampart.
- Military Band Performances: 8–15 August at 343 locations pan-India; by Army, Navy, Air Force, CRPF, ITBP, CISF, SSB, BSF, IDS, RPF, Assam Rifles, ICG, NCC.
- Yuva Shakti: 19 medalist students of International Olympiads 2026 (Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics) seated on rampart.
- ~5,000 Special Guests from: Youth innovators, PMIS interns, PMKVY trained, MY Bharat volunteers, PM Mudra women entrepreneurs, PM Vishwakarma artisans, PM SVANidhi vendors, Urban sanitation workers, Delhi Metro workers, PM Surya Ghar beneficiaries, Nursing orderlies.
- Over 1,500 people from various States/UTs in traditional attire — microcosm of India at Red Fort.
- Competitions: Essay (AI & Viksit Bharat), Painting ('India 1947 vs 2047'), Online Quizzes — ~600 winners invited.
- Seating enclosures named after major lakes of India (Republic Day 2026 used rivers).
- Post-event Swachhta Campaign: NCC + MY Bharat volunteers — systematic plogging at Red Fort same day.
- Invitation cards feature 'Seva Teerth'; Dharm Chakra symbolizes righteous duty and continuous selfless action.
80th
Independence Day – 15 August 2026
150 Years
Vande Mataram (1876–2026)
5,000+
Special guests from diverse categories
343
Band performance locations pan-India
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- Vande Mataram: Written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1876; from his novel Anandamath (1882); first sung at INC session in 1896 by Rabindranath Tagore.
- First two stanzas adopted as National Song of India on 24 January 1950.
- Constituent Assembly: Gave equal honour to both Jana Gana Mana (National Anthem) and Vande Mataram (National Song).
- Red Fort (Lal Qila): Built by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan (1638–1648); located in Old Delhi on Yamuna's banks; UNESCO World Heritage Site (2007).
- First Independence Day: 15 August 1947; Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the Tricolour at Red Fort.
- Viksit Bharat@2047: Vision document for India to become a developed nation by its 100th Independence Day (2047).
- MY Bharat (Mera Yuva Bharat): Launched 31 October 2023 (Sardar Patel's birth anniversary); autonomous body under Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
- NCC: National Cadet Corps; established 1948; motto: Unity and Discipline; under Ministry of Defence.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements about 'Vande Mataram':
1. It was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and first published in the novel Anandamath in 1882.
2. It was first sung at the Indian National Congress session of 1896 by Rabindranath Tagore.
3. The Constituent Assembly adopted the first two stanzas of Vande Mataram as the National Song on 24 January 1950.
4. The National Song and National Anthem have been given equal status in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: Vande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1876 and first published in his Bengali novel Anandamath (1882).
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: It was first sung at the INC Calcutta Session of 1896 by Rabindranath Tagore.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The first two stanzas were adopted as National Song on 24 January 1950 by the Constituent Assembly (same day as Jana Gana Mana was adopted as National Anthem).
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The National Song and National Anthem have been given equal honour/status by the Constituent Assembly's decision — but this is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India. The Constitution does not mention the National Song at all; only the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana) is enshrined in practices.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: It was first sung at the INC Calcutta Session of 1896 by Rabindranath Tagore.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The first two stanzas were adopted as National Song on 24 January 1950 by the Constituent Assembly (same day as Jana Gana Mana was adopted as National Anthem).
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The National Song and National Anthem have been given equal honour/status by the Constituent Assembly's decision — but this is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India. The Constitution does not mention the National Song at all; only the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana) is enshrined in practices.
🎯 Medium
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q2. Which of the following statements about the Red Fort (Lal Qila) in Delhi is/are correct?
1. It was built by Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb between 1638–1648.
2. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2007.
3. It is situated on the banks of the Yamuna River in Old Delhi.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Statement 1 ❌ INCORRECT: Red Fort was built by Shah Jahan (NOT Aurangzeb) between 1638–1648. It served as the main residence of Mughal Emperors for ~200 years. Aurangzeb was Shah Jahan's son who imprisoned him.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Red Fort was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2007. India has 43 UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: Red Fort is situated on the banks of the Yamuna River in Old Delhi (Shahjahanabad). It is now an ASI-protected monument. Independence Day is celebrated here annually since 1947.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Red Fort was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2007. India has 43 UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: Red Fort is situated on the banks of the Yamuna River in Old Delhi (Shahjahanabad). It is now an ASI-protected monument. Independence Day is celebrated here annually since 1947.
Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change
🦁 Asiatic Lion Population Rises from 523 (2015) to 891 (2025) – World Lion Day
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- On World Lion Day (10 August 2026), Union Environment Minister Shri Bhupender Yadav highlighted India's success in Asiatic Lion conservation.
- Asiatic Lion Population Growth: 2015: 523 → 2025: 891 — increase of 368 lions (~70% in 10 years).
- Achievement attributed to: forest officials, conservationists, local communities.
- MoS EFCC Shri Kirti Vardhan Singh: "Development and nature can thrive together."
- Project Lion: Announced by PM Modi on 15 August 2020 (Independence Day).
- Lion range: ~30,000 sq.km (2020) → ~35,000 sq.km (2025).
- Project Lion's Holistic Approach:
- Habitat enhancement.
- Disease monitoring and veterinary support.
- Scientific population tracking.
- Technology-aided interventions.
- Biodiversity protection, benefit sharing and community involvement.
891
Asiatic Lions in India (2025)
~70%
Population increase in 10 years (2015–2025)
~35,000 sq.km
Current lion range in India (up from 30,000)
15 Aug 2020
Project Lion announced by PM Modi
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica): Found only in Gir Forest, Gujarat; IUCN Status: Endangered; smaller than African Lion; has distinctive belly fold and single mane fold.
- Gir National Park & Wildlife Sanctuary: Est. 1965; only natural habitat of Asiatic Lions in the world; Junagadh district, Gujarat.
- Project Tiger: Launched 1973; 54 Tiger Reserves (2025); Tiger population: 3,682 (2022 Census); India has ~75% of world's wild tigers.
- World Lion Day: Observed annually on 10 August; founded by Big Cat Initiative.
- SC Judgment 2013 (Gir Forest case): Directed Gujarat to allow relocation of Asiatic Lions to Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (MP) as a second home — for genetic safety and species survival.
- Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Asiatic Lion under Schedule I — highest protection; hunting = cognizable offence.
- IUCN Red List Categories: Extinct → Extinct in Wild → Critically Endangered → Endangered → Vulnerable → Near Threatened → Least Concern.
- India's Big Cats: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Clouded Leopard, Cheetah (reintroduced 2022).
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica):
1. It is found only in the Gir Forest of Gujarat and is listed as 'Endangered' on the IUCN Red List.
2. The Supreme Court of India directed Gujarat to allow relocation of some Asiatic Lions to Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh.
3. Project Lion was announced by PM Modi on 26 January 2020.
4. The Asiatic Lion population grew from 523 in 2015 to 891 in 2025.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: Asiatic Lion is found ONLY in Gir Forest, Gujarat; IUCN Status: Endangered. World's last wild Asiatic Lions are in Gir.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: The Supreme Court in 2013 directed Gujarat to allow transfer of some lions to Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh for genetic diversity and species survival safety. Gujarat resisted but SC upheld the order.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: Project Lion was announced by PM Narendra Modi on 15 August 2020 (Independence Day), NOT 26 January 2020 (Republic Day).
Statement 4 ✅ CORRECT: Asiatic Lion population rose from 523 (2015) to 891 (2025) — a ~70% increase in 10 years, reflecting successful conservation.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: The Supreme Court in 2013 directed Gujarat to allow transfer of some lions to Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh for genetic diversity and species survival safety. Gujarat resisted but SC upheld the order.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: Project Lion was announced by PM Narendra Modi on 15 August 2020 (Independence Day), NOT 26 January 2020 (Republic Day).
Statement 4 ✅ CORRECT: Asiatic Lion population rose from 523 (2015) to 891 (2025) — a ~70% increase in 10 years, reflecting successful conservation.
🎯 Medium
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q2. Which of the following wildlife species are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, providing them the highest level of protection in India?
1. Asiatic Lion
2. Bengal Tiger
3. One-horned Rhinoceros
4. Indian Peafowl (National Bird)
Select the correct answer:
All four species — Asiatic Lion, Bengal Tiger, One-horned Rhinoceros and Indian Peafowl — are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972, which provides the highest degree of protection. Hunting of Schedule I species is a cognizable, non-bailable offence with stringent penalties. Schedule I includes endangered and critically important species. WPA 1972 has 6 Schedules covering different levels of protection. Amended significantly in 2022 to bring it in line with CITES obligations.
Ministry of Home Affairs
✈️ 11 New International Ports Added for E-Visa Entry – Total Now 88
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- Government of India notified 11 more International Ports enabling E-Visa holder foreigners to enter India — 9 land ports + 2 airports.
- Total International Ports for E-Visa: 88 = 37 airports + 38 seaports + 13 land ports.
- India processes approximately 95% of E-Visa applications in less than 72 hours.
- 11 Newly Added Ports:
- 2 New Airports: Bhopal, Tirupati.
- 9 New Land Ports: Agartala, Darranga, Gede, Ghojadanga, Haridaspur, Jaigaon, Dawki, Moreh, Attari (Road).
- E-Visa History: Introduced in 2014 for nationals of 43 countries; now covers nationals of 172 countries.
- 17 E-Visa Sub-categories: Tourist, Mountaineering, Business (B1–B6), Medical (M1–M4), Student (S1–S2), Transit, Miscellaneous (X1), Group Visitor Visa (Cruise).
- India now issues roughly 78% of all visas as Electronic Visas.
- Initiative under PM Modi and Home Minister Shri Amit Shah.
88
Total international ports for E-Visa entry
37+38+13
Airports + Seaports + Land Ports
172
Countries covered under E-Visa facility
78%
Of all India visas now issued as E-Visa
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- E-Visa (Electronic Travel Authorization – ETA): Introduced November 2014; allows online application without visiting an embassy; grants are 30-day, 1-year or 5-year validity based on type.
- Bureau of Immigration (BoI): Under Ministry of Home Affairs; manages visa, immigration and travel document services in India.
- Foreigners Act, 1946: Primary law governing entry, residence and departure of foreigners in India; empowers Centre to regulate movement.
- Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920: Older framework; requires valid travel document for entry into India.
- FRRO (Foreigners Regional Registration Office): Foreigners staying beyond 180 days must register; offices in major cities.
- SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme: Allows certain categories of SAARC nationals to travel without visa in member countries.
- India aims for 100 million foreign tourist arrivals by 2047 (Viksit Bharat vision).
- India's inbound tourism: ~9.2 million foreign tourist arrivals (2023); target to double by 2030.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding India's E-Visa (Electronic Travel Authorization) facility:
1. India's E-Visa facility was introduced in 2014 and initially covered only 43 countries.
2. India currently issues approximately 78% of all visas as electronic visas.
3. E-Visa is currently available under 17 sub-categories including Tourist, Medical, Business and Student visas.
4. India provides approximately 95% of E-Visa applications in less than 72 hours.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
All 4 statements are CORRECT:
Statement 1 ✅: India's E-Visa was introduced in November 2014 initially for 43 countries; now covers 172 countries.
Statement 2 ✅: India issues roughly 78% of all visas as Electronic Visas — showcasing the success of digital visa reforms.
Statement 3 ✅: E-Visa is available under 17 sub-categories including Tourist, Mountaineering, Business (B1–B6), Medical (M1–M4), Student (S1–S2), Transit, Miscellaneous (X1) and Group Visitor (Cruise).
Statement 4 ✅: India processes approximately 95% of E-Visa applications in less than 72 hours — making it one of the fastest visa processing countries. With 11 new ports added, total E-Visa entry ports = 88 (37 airports + 38 seaports + 13 land ports).
Statement 1 ✅: India's E-Visa was introduced in November 2014 initially for 43 countries; now covers 172 countries.
Statement 2 ✅: India issues roughly 78% of all visas as Electronic Visas — showcasing the success of digital visa reforms.
Statement 3 ✅: E-Visa is available under 17 sub-categories including Tourist, Mountaineering, Business (B1–B6), Medical (M1–M4), Student (S1–S2), Transit, Miscellaneous (X1) and Group Visitor (Cruise).
Statement 4 ✅: India processes approximately 95% of E-Visa applications in less than 72 hours — making it one of the fastest visa processing countries. With 11 new ports added, total E-Visa entry ports = 88 (37 airports + 38 seaports + 13 land ports).
🎯 Medium
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q2. Among the newly added 11 International Ports for E-Visa holder entry into India (as of August 2026), which of the following are correctly identified as Land Ports?
1. Dawki (Meghalaya)
2. Moreh (Manipur)
3. Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
4. Attari Road (Punjab)
Select the correct answer:
Among the 11 newly added ports: 9 are Land Ports and 2 are Airports (Bhopal and Tirupati).
Dawki ✅ Land Port: Located in Meghalaya on the India-Bangladesh border; important trade route.
Moreh ✅ Land Port: Located in Manipur on the India-Myanmar border; key to Act East connectivity.
Bhopal ❌ NOT a Land Port: Bhopal is one of the 2 newly added Airports (the other being Tirupati). It is the capital of Madhya Pradesh.
Attari Road ✅ Land Port: Located in Punjab on the India-Pakistan border; the famous Wagah Border crossing; key Integrated Check Post (ICP).
Dawki ✅ Land Port: Located in Meghalaya on the India-Bangladesh border; important trade route.
Moreh ✅ Land Port: Located in Manipur on the India-Myanmar border; key to Act East connectivity.
Bhopal ❌ NOT a Land Port: Bhopal is one of the 2 newly added Airports (the other being Tirupati). It is the capital of Madhya Pradesh.
Attari Road ✅ Land Port: Located in Punjab on the India-Pakistan border; the famous Wagah Border crossing; key Integrated Check Post (ICP).
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
🛒 PM SVANidhi – 76.95 Lakh Vendors, ₹18,475 Crore Disbursed & Socio-Economic Impact
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- PM SVANidhi (PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi): Launched 1 June 2020; collateral-free working capital loans to urban street vendors.
- Till 12 July 2026: 76.95 lakh vendors availed 1.15 crore+ loans totalling ₹18,475 crore.
- Loan Tranche Progress: 2nd tranche: 29.71 lakh vendors | 3rd tranche: 8.49 lakh vendors.
- ISB Impact Study Findings:
- 2023 Study (100 ULBs, 5,000+ beneficiaries): For 95% of beneficiaries — PM SVANidhi was their first-ever bank loan.
- 2025 Study (99 ULBs, 5,000+ beneficiaries): Average annualized business income grew by ~20% (2023–2025).
- ~30% borrowers now hold other loans — building credit histories.
- Digital payments rose significantly; improved food security, healthcare and children's education.
- Digital Incentive: Cashback up to ₹100/month (12 months/tranche); ₹100/quarter for digital wholesale purchases ≥₹2,000. Since inception: 875+ crore digital transactions; ₹412 crore cashback released.
- 'SVANidhi se Samriddhi': Launched 4 January 2021; links to 8 Central Govt welfare schemes for social safety net (PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima, PM Suraksha Bima, PMJDY, BOCW, PM Shram Yogi Maandhan, ONORC, PM Janani Suraksha, PMMVY).
- Socio-economic profiling: 50.63 lakh beneficiaries; 1.56 crore scheme sanctions extended.
- Information by MoS Housing Shri Tokhan Sahu in Rajya Sabha.
76.95 Lakh
Street vendors availed PM SVANidhi loans
₹18,475 Cr
Total loans disbursed since inception
~20%
Growth in avg. business income (2023–2025)
875+ Cr
Digital transactions by vendor beneficiaries
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- PM SVANidhi: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs; 3 tranches: ₹10,000 → ₹20,000 → ₹50,000; interest subsidy: 7% p.a. on timely repayment.
- Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014: Legal framework; mandates Town Vending Committees (TVCs) in every urban local body.
- RuPay Credit Card linked to UPI: Launched 23 January 2026 for SVANidhi beneficiaries who repaid 2nd tranche.
- NPCI: National Payments Corporation of India; manages RuPay and UPI; est. 2008 under RBI.
- India has ~1 crore street vendors; contribute ~14% of urban informal employment.
- Restructured PM SVANidhi: Approved 27 August 2025; expanded to census towns and peri-urban areas.
- SVANidhi Mahotsav + Lok Kalyan Melas: Special campaigns for loan disbursement and grievance redressal.
- Urban Local Bodies (ULBs): Governed under 74th Constitutional Amendment (1992); Schedule 12 lists 18 functions for ULBs.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements about the PM SVANidhi Scheme:
1. PM SVANidhi was launched on 1 June 2020 to provide collateral-free working capital loans to urban street vendors.
2. The scheme provides loans in three tranches — ₹10,000, ₹20,000 and ₹50,000 — with an interest subsidy of 7% per annum on timely repayment.
3. The 'SVANidhi se Samriddhi' component was launched on 4 January 2021 and links beneficiaries to 8 Central Govt welfare schemes.
4. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: PM SVANidhi was launched on 1 June 2020 during COVID-19 to provide collateral-free working capital loans to urban street vendors.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Three tranches: ₹10,000 → ₹20,000 → ₹50,000; interest subsidy of 7% per annum on timely repayment; cashback incentive for digital transactions.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: 'SVANidhi se Samriddhi' was launched on 4 January 2021; links to 8 Central Govt welfare schemes including PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, PMJDY, BOCW, PM Shram Yogi Maandhan, ONORC, PMMVY, etc.
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: PM SVANidhi is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), NOT Ministry of Finance. MoS Shri Tokhan Sahu responded in Rajya Sabha about its achievements.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Three tranches: ₹10,000 → ₹20,000 → ₹50,000; interest subsidy of 7% per annum on timely repayment; cashback incentive for digital transactions.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: 'SVANidhi se Samriddhi' was launched on 4 January 2021; links to 8 Central Govt welfare schemes including PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, PMJDY, BOCW, PM Shram Yogi Maandhan, ONORC, PMMVY, etc.
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: PM SVANidhi is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), NOT Ministry of Finance. MoS Shri Tokhan Sahu responded in Rajya Sabha about its achievements.
Ministry of Jal Shakti
🌊 National Rivers Interlinking Programme – 30 ILR Projects; Ken-Betwa in Implementation
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- Government formulated National Perspective Plan (NPP) for Inter-Basin Water Transfer; 30 ILR (Interlinking of Rivers) Projects identified: 16 Peninsular + 14 Himalayan.
- Implemented by NWDA (National Water Development Agency).
- Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP): Only priority link project in implementation stage.
- Estimated cost: ₹44,605 crore.
- Irrigation: ~11.88 lakh hectares | Drinking water: ~62 lakh people.
- Hydropower: 103 MW + Solar: 27 MW.
- States: Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
- Comprehensive EIA + Integrated Landscape Management Plan (ILMP) completed.
- Polavaram Irrigation Project (PIP): Godavari (Polavaram)–Krishna (Vijayawada) link; National Project; by AP + Polavaram Project Authority.
- Irrigation: ~7.2 lakh acres + Stabilization: 23.5 lakh acres.
- Hydropower: 960 MW | Diverts 80 TMC Godavari water to Krishna basin.
- Central Assistance: ₹20,658 crore.
- Parbati–Kalisindh–Chambal Link: MoA for implementation signed by MP and Rajasthan.
- All ILR projects include EIA, Land Acquisition and Rehabilitation & Resettlement (R&R) as per applicable provisions.
- Information by MoS Jal Shakti Shri Raj Bhushan Choudhary in Rajya Sabha.
30 Projects
16 Peninsular + 14 Himalayan ILR links
₹44,605 Cr
Ken-Betwa Link Project estimated cost
103 MW + 27 MW
Hydro + Solar power from Ken-Betwa
₹20,658 Cr
Central Assistance to Polavaram Project
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- NWDA: National Water Development Agency; est. 1982; under Ministry of Jal Shakti; prepares Feasibility Reports (FRs) and Detailed Project Reports (DPRs) for all ILR projects.
- Ken River: Originates in Vindhyan Hills (MP); tributary of Yamuna; flows through Panna Tiger Reserve.
- Betwa River: Originates near Bhopal (MP); tributary of Yamuna; flows through UP.
- Ken-Betwa: Water diverted from Ken (after Daudhan Dam) to Betwa — addresses water deficit in Bundelkhand region.
- Environmental concern: Ken-Betwa project affects Panna Tiger Reserve in MP — submerges part of tiger habitat; clearances obtained with mitigation measures.
- National Water Policy (2012): Framework for integrated water management; recommends inter-basin water transfer based on basin-level planning.
- Article 262: Parliament can adjudicate disputes regarding interstate rivers; excludes SC jurisdiction.
- Interstate River Water Disputes Act, 1956: Establishes tribunals for resolving river water disputes between states.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding India's Interlinking of Rivers (ILR) Programme:
1. The National Perspective Plan (NPP) for Inter-Basin Water Transfer identifies 30 ILR projects — 16 under Peninsular Component and 14 under Himalayan Component.
2. The Ken-Betwa Link Project, the first ILR project in implementation, connects rivers in Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
3. The Polavaram Irrigation Project diverts 80 TMC of Krishna River water to the Godavari basin.
4. NWDA was established in 1982 to implement the National Perspective Plan.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: NPP identifies exactly 30 ILR projects — 16 Peninsular + 14 Himalayan; implemented by NWDA.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Ken-Betwa Link Project connects UP and MP; Ken water diverted to Betwa for Bundelkhand water needs; cost ₹44,605 crore; 103 MW hydro + 27 MW solar power.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: The Polavaram Irrigation Project diverts 80 TMC of Godavari water to the Krishna basin — NOT the other way around. Polavaram is on the Godavari River in Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 4 ✅ CORRECT: NWDA (National Water Development Agency) was established in 1982 under Ministry of Jal Shakti; entrusted with water balance studies and preparation of FRs and DPRs for all 30 ILR projects.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Ken-Betwa Link Project connects UP and MP; Ken water diverted to Betwa for Bundelkhand water needs; cost ₹44,605 crore; 103 MW hydro + 27 MW solar power.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: The Polavaram Irrigation Project diverts 80 TMC of Godavari water to the Krishna basin — NOT the other way around. Polavaram is on the Godavari River in Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 4 ✅ CORRECT: NWDA (National Water Development Agency) was established in 1982 under Ministry of Jal Shakti; entrusted with water balance studies and preparation of FRs and DPRs for all 30 ILR projects.
Ministry of Science & Technology
🌐 Scientists Discover Unusual Ozone Layer above North Bay of Bengal
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- Scientists detected an unusually high concentration of ozone in the upper atmosphere over the North Bay of Bengal.
- Ozone normally peaks at 25–30 km altitude; this unusual layer was found at 21–23 km altitude — lower than normal.
- Study conducted under Phase-I NetRAD-ASMA Campaign — nationwide scientific programme.
- Key institution: ARIES (Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences) under DST; located at Nainital, Uttarakhand.
- Lead scientists from ARIES: Dr. Manish Naja and Dr. Samaresh Bhattacharjee.
- Published in Earth and Space Science (journal of American Geophysical Union – AGU).
- Instruments Used:
- Indigenously developed 206.5 MHz Stratosphere–Troposphere (ST) Radar at ARIES, Nainital.
- Similar radars at Haringhata, Gadanki, Kochi.
- Weather balloons carrying ozone & atmospheric instruments.
- Aura MLS and INSAT-3DR satellites.
- Advanced atmospheric models.
- Critical Finding: Enhanced ozone was observed during both daytime AND nighttime → rules out sunlight-driven (photochemical) causes.
- Cause Identified: Transport of ozone-rich air + downward atmospheric motion + compression of air mass (dynamical, not photochemical).
- Ozone layer persisted for more than a day.
- Highlights value of coordinated multi-instrument atmospheric observations across India.
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- Ozone (O₃): Triatomic oxygen; formed in stratosphere when UV radiation splits O₂ → 2O, which combines with O₂ → O₃.
- Stratosphere: 12–50 km altitude; temperature increases with altitude (due to ozone absorption of UV); contains the ozone layer (15–35 km).
- Ozone depletion: Caused by CFCs, HCFCs, Halons releasing Cl and Br atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.
- Montreal Protocol (1987): Phases out ozone-depleting substances; called "the most successful environmental treaty ever"; ratified by all 198 UN member states — only universal ratification in UN history.
- Kigali Amendment (2016) to Montreal Protocol: Phases down HFCs (potent greenhouse gases but not ozone-depleting); entered into force 2019.
- ARIES: Autonomous institute under DST; Nainital, Uttarakhand; research in astronomy, astrophysics, solar physics, atmospheric sciences; has the Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT) — India's largest optical telescope (3.6 m).
- INSAT-3DR: Geostationary meteorological satellite; launched 2016 by ISRO; provides weather imagery; operated by IMD.
- Bay of Bengal: Arm of the Indian Ocean; bounded by India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Andaman & Nicobar Islands; key for Indian monsoon dynamics.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements about the Earth's atmosphere and the Ozone Layer:
1. The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, which extends from approximately 12 km to 50 km above Earth's surface.
2. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) released in the atmosphere destroy ozone by releasing chlorine atoms that react catalytically with ozone molecules.
3. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is the only international agreement that has been ratified by all 198 UN member states.
4. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol targets the phase-down of HFCs, which are ozone-depleting substances.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: The stratosphere extends from ~12 km to 50 km above Earth; the ozone layer is mainly between 15–35 km. Temperature increases with altitude in the stratosphere due to UV absorption by ozone.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: CFCs release chlorine (Cl) atoms under UV radiation in the stratosphere; Cl acts as a catalytic destroyer of ozone (one Cl atom can destroy 100,000 ozone molecules).
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The Montreal Protocol (1987) is ratified by all 198 UN member states — the only such universal ratification in UN history; called "most successful environmental treaty."
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: HFCs (Hydrofluorocarbons) targeted by Kigali Amendment (2016) are NOT ozone-depleting substances — they are potent greenhouse gases (used as replacements for CFCs). The amendment targets them for climate reasons, not ozone protection. CFCs and HCFCs are the ozone-depleting ones.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: CFCs release chlorine (Cl) atoms under UV radiation in the stratosphere; Cl acts as a catalytic destroyer of ozone (one Cl atom can destroy 100,000 ozone molecules).
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The Montreal Protocol (1987) is ratified by all 198 UN member states — the only such universal ratification in UN history; called "most successful environmental treaty."
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: HFCs (Hydrofluorocarbons) targeted by Kigali Amendment (2016) are NOT ozone-depleting substances — they are potent greenhouse gases (used as replacements for CFCs). The amendment targets them for climate reasons, not ozone protection. CFCs and HCFCs are the ozone-depleting ones.
Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship
👧 NAVYA Programme – 1,060 Adolescent Girls Trained Across 15 States/UTs
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- NAVYA = Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls.
- Implemented under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0 (PMKVY 4.0).
- 1,060 girls trained from 15 States/UTs (as of 30 June 2026).
- Expanded to 100 Aspirational Districts with effect from 27 May 2026.
- Key Programme Features:
- Industry-relevant skill courses with embedded On-the-Job Training (OJT).
- Emphasis on futuristic job roles.
- Mandatory Holistic Development Module: digital literacy, financial literacy, career readiness, entrepreneurship orientation.
- Monitoring: Via Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH) — real-time tracking of registration, attendance, training progress, certification.
- State-wise Training (Top 5): MP (168), J&K (137), Bihar (112), UP (107), Gujarat (95). Lowest: Rajasthan (8).
- Information by MoS (I/C) MSDE Shri Jayant Chaudhary in Lok Sabha.
1,060
Girls trained (15 States/UTs, up to June 2026)
100
Aspirational Districts – NAVYA expansion target
168
Madhya Pradesh – highest training numbers
27 May 2026
Expansion to 100 Aspirational Districts announced
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- PMKVY 4.0: 4th iteration of PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana; focuses on Industry 4.0 skills, OJT (minimum 30%), green jobs, care economy, drone technology, AI/ML.
- MSDE: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship; est. 2014; first separate ministry for skilling in India.
- NSDC (National Skill Development Corporation): PPP entity; facilitates skill training through sector skill councils and training partners.
- Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH): Digital platform launched under PMKVY 4.0 for end-to-end management of skilling ecosystem.
- Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP): Launched January 2018; covers 112 most backward districts; monitored by NITI Aayog; "Champions of Change" approach.
- ITIs (Industrial Training Institutes): ~14,000+ ITIs across India; 1-2 year vocational courses; affiliated to NCVT (National Council for Vocational Training).
- India's Skilling Target: Government aims to skill 400 million people by 2022 (revised and ongoing); India has world's largest youth population.
- NEP 2020: Mandates vocational education from Class 6 onwards; at least 50% students to have vocational education by 2025.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements about the NAVYA Programme and PMKVY 4.0:
1. NAVYA stands for 'Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls' and is implemented under PMKVY 4.0.
2. PMKVY 4.0 mandates a minimum of 30% On-the-Job Training (OJT) component in skill courses.
3. The Aspirational Districts Programme covers 100 districts across India and is monitored by the Ministry of Rural Development.
4. The Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH) provides real-time tracking of beneficiary registration, attendance, training progress and certification.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: NAVYA = Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls; implemented under PMKVY 4.0 by MSDE. 1,060 girls trained from 15 States/UTs; expanded to 100 Aspirational Districts from 27 May 2026.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: PMKVY 4.0 mandates a minimum of 30% On-the-Job Training (OJT) component in skill training to ensure industry readiness and practical learning.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: The Aspirational Districts Programme covers 112 districts (not 100) and is monitored by NITI Aayog (not Ministry of Rural Development), launched January 2018 by PM Modi. NAVYA has been expanded to 100 aspirational districts — which are a subset of the 112.
Statement 4 ✅ CORRECT: Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH) is leveraged for real-time tracking of beneficiary registration, attendance, training progress, certification and other KPIs under NAVYA programme.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: PMKVY 4.0 mandates a minimum of 30% On-the-Job Training (OJT) component in skill training to ensure industry readiness and practical learning.
Statement 3 ❌ INCORRECT: The Aspirational Districts Programme covers 112 districts (not 100) and is monitored by NITI Aayog (not Ministry of Rural Development), launched January 2018 by PM Modi. NAVYA has been expanded to 100 aspirational districts — which are a subset of the 112.
Statement 4 ✅ CORRECT: Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH) is leveraged for real-time tracking of beneficiary registration, attendance, training progress, certification and other KPIs under NAVYA programme.
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
🤝 SMILE Scheme – 2,824 Children Rescued & Rehabilitated from Begging
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- SMILE = Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise — Comprehensive Rehabilitation of Persons Engaged in the Act of Begging.
- Implemented since 23 October 2023 in 216 major cities and towns across 33 States/UTs by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- Children Rehabilitated (as of 30 June 2026):
- Total identified, rescued and rehabilitated: 2,824 children.
- Reunited with parents/families: 1,549.
- Admitted to Schools: 676.
- Admitted to Anganwadi Centres: 309.
- Produced before Child Welfare Committee (CWC): 290.
- Children requiring institutional care: linked to Child Care Institutions (CCIs) under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
- Scheme provides 100% rehabilitation and mainstreaming of rescued children — family reunification, school/Anganwadi admission, or institutional care via CWC/CCIs.
- Top States: UP (927 – highest), Chandigarh (313), Delhi (233), Maharashtra (208), AP (191).
- Age-wise and gender-wise data of identified children NOT maintained separately.
- Information by MoS SJE Shri B.L. Verma in Lok Sabha.
2,824
Children identified, rescued and rehabilitated
1,549
Children reunited with families
216 Cities
33 States/UTs covered under SMILE Scheme
927
UP – highest children rehabilitated
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- SMILE Scheme: Central Sector Scheme; under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment; launched 2022; implemented since 23 October 2023 in 216 cities.
- Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015: Replaced JJ Act 2000; provides for care, protection, rehabilitation of children in need; Amended 2021 to allow District Magistrates to grant adoption orders.
- CWC (Child Welfare Committee): Quasi-judicial body under JJ Act 2015; one in each district; determines best interest of child in need of care and protection.
- CCIs (Child Care Institutions): Shelter homes for children; registered under JJ Act; types include Observation Homes, Special Homes, Shelter Homes.
- NCPCR (National Commission for Protection of Child Rights): Statutory body; est. 2007 under CPCR Act 2005; protects child rights, monitors JJ Act implementation.
- Anganwadi Centres: Under POSHAN 2.0 (Integrated Child Development Services – ICDS); provides nutrition, early education, health checkup for 0-6 year children.
- Article 21A: Right to Education for children aged 6–14 years (86th Amendment, 2002).
- Article 24: Prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines and other hazardous occupations.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and related institutions:
1. The JJ Act 2015 replaced the earlier JJ Act of 2000 and provides for care, protection and rehabilitation of children in need.
2. Child Welfare Committees (CWCs) are quasi-judicial bodies constituted under the JJ Act 2015 to determine the best interest of a child in need of care and protection.
3. The 2021 Amendment to JJ Act 2015 empowers District Magistrates (DMs) to grant adoption orders, previously handled only by courts.
4. The SMILE Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: JJ Act 2015 replaced JJ Act 2000; provides comprehensive framework for care, protection, treatment, social re-integration of children in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: CWCs (Child Welfare Committees) are quasi-judicial bodies constituted under JJ Act 2015; one in each district; deals with children in need of care and protection (abused, abandoned, orphaned, beggar children etc.).
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The JJ (Amendment) Act 2021 empowers District Magistrates (DMs) to grant adoption orders — this decentralized adoption processes and reduced delays (previously handled by civil courts).
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The SMILE Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE), NOT the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It was implemented since 23 October 2023 in 216 cities across 33 States/UTs; 2,824 children rehabilitated as of June 2026.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: CWCs (Child Welfare Committees) are quasi-judicial bodies constituted under JJ Act 2015; one in each district; deals with children in need of care and protection (abused, abandoned, orphaned, beggar children etc.).
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The JJ (Amendment) Act 2021 empowers District Magistrates (DMs) to grant adoption orders — this decentralized adoption processes and reduced delays (previously handled by civil courts).
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The SMILE Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE), NOT the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It was implemented since 23 October 2023 in 216 cities across 33 States/UTs; 2,824 children rehabilitated as of June 2026.
PIB Backgrounder – Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
📊 PAIMANA – Data-Driven Infrastructure Governance; 1,847 Projects Worth ₹40.54 Lakh Crore
📝 Key Notes
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
❓ MCQ Practice
- PAIMANA = Project Assessment, Infrastructure Monitoring and Analytics for Nation-Building.
- Launched 25 September 2025 by MoSPI; web-based platform replacing earlier OCMS-2006 (Online Computerized Monitoring System).
- Monitors Central Sector infrastructure projects costing ₹150 crore or more.
- PAIMANA-CRIP Module: Launched 8 July 2026; replaces DPIIT's IPMP (Integrated Project Monitoring Portal); evolving as Central Repository of Infrastructure Projects; feeds data to PRAGATI, PMG reviews.
- 20+ Ministries/Departments update data; 60%+ of projects auto-updated via APIs.
- Performance Monitoring Dashboard: Launched 16 April 2026; now has 165 indicators (added 54 new) across 6 sub-sectors:
- Civil Aviation: 31 | Roads: 8 | Power: 14 | Ports/Shipping/Waterways: 62 | Telecom: 13 | Railways: 37.
- Framework by NIPFP; aligns with Harmonized Master List (HML) of Infrastructure (2022) by DEA.
- Performance Dimensions: Access, Quality, Fiscal Cost & Revenue, Utilization, Affordability.
- Infrastructure Projects — June 2026:
- 1,847 ongoing projects across 17 Ministries/Departments.
- Revised cost: ₹40.54 lakh crore.
- Expenditure: ₹21.97 lakh crore (54.18%).
- 709 projects (~39%) exceed 80% physical progress.
- Transport & Logistics: Largest sector — 1,341 projects worth ₹22.32 lakh crore.
- 769 mega projects (≥₹1,000 crore) worth ₹30.51 lakh crore.
- Ministry-wise Leaders:
- MoRTH: 1,022 projects (55%) — ₹9.89 lakh crore.
- Railways: 255 projects — ₹8.69 lakh crore.
- Coal: 121 projects — ₹2.22 lakh crore.
- Power: 98 projects — ₹5.71 lakh crore.
1,847
Ongoing infra projects monitored (June 2026)
₹40.54 L Cr
Total revised cost of monitored projects
165
Performance indicators on dashboard
54.18%
Expenditure progress (₹21.97 lakh crore spent)
⭐ Prelims Extra Points
- MoSPI: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation; formed 1999; HQ New Delhi; prepares GDP estimates, CPI, Index of Industrial Production (IIP), NSS, Census etc.
- PRAGATI: Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation; PMO-level platform launched 25 March 2015; monthly video conferencing between PM and Secretaries/CMs for reviewing project implementation.
- PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan: Launched 13 October 2021; multi-modal connectivity platform integrating 16 Ministries' infrastructure plans; monitored via GIS-based digital platform.
- NIPFP: National Institute of Public Finance and Policy; est. 1976; autonomous research institute; advises government on public finance and economic policy.
- National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP): Launched December 2019; ₹111 lakh crore investment target across 6,835 projects (2019-25); expanded to 2022-2030.
- Harmonized Master List (HML) of Infrastructure (2022): DEA-notified classification of infrastructure sectors eligible for policy support, investment planning and financing benefits (debt, ECB, bonds).
- DEA: Department of Economic Affairs; under Ministry of Finance; manages economic policy, foreign investments, infrastructure financing.
- India's infrastructure investment: Target 5.5–6% of GDP annually to sustain growth momentum and support $5 trillion economy goal.
❓ MCQ Practice
🔥 Hard
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q1. Consider the following statements about infrastructure monitoring mechanisms in India:
1. PAIMANA was launched in September 2025 by MoSPI to monitor Central Sector infrastructure projects costing ₹150 crore or more, replacing OCMS-2006.
2. PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation) is a PMO-level platform launched in 2015 for monthly review of infrastructure projects through video conferencing.
3. PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched in October 2021 and integrates infrastructure plans of 16 Ministries on a GIS-based digital platform.
4. The Harmonized Master List (HML) of Infrastructure (2022) is issued by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: PAIMANA was launched on 25 September 2025 by MoSPI; monitors projects ≥₹150 crore; replaced OCMS-2006. The PAIMANA-CRIP module (launched 8 July 2026) replaced DPIIT's IPMP.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: PRAGATI was launched on 25 March 2015; PMO-level monthly video conferencing platform involving PM, Secretaries and CMs; reviews stalled/pending infrastructure projects — very effective governance tool.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched on 13 October 2021; GIS-based platform integrating plans of 16 Ministries for multi-modal infrastructure connectivity planning.
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The Harmonized Master List (HML) of Infrastructure (2022) is issued by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance — NOT Ministry of Commerce and Industry. HML classifies infrastructure sectors eligible for policy support and financing benefits.
Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: PRAGATI was launched on 25 March 2015; PMO-level monthly video conferencing platform involving PM, Secretaries and CMs; reviews stalled/pending infrastructure projects — very effective governance tool.
Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched on 13 October 2021; GIS-based platform integrating plans of 16 Ministries for multi-modal infrastructure connectivity planning.
Statement 4 ❌ INCORRECT: The Harmonized Master List (HML) of Infrastructure (2022) is issued by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance — NOT Ministry of Commerce and Industry. HML classifies infrastructure sectors eligible for policy support and financing benefits.
🎯 Medium
📌 UPSC Prelims Pattern
Q2. According to PAIMANA data (June 2026), which Ministry/Department manages the largest number of ongoing Central Sector infrastructure projects in India?
As per PAIMANA data (June 2026), Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) manages the largest number of ongoing Central Sector infrastructure projects — 1,022 projects (55% of total 1,847) with a revised cost of ₹9.89 lakh crore. This reflects India's massive road infrastructure expansion (National Highways, Expressways, Bharatmala Pariyojana). Railways is second with 255 projects (₹8.69 lakh crore), followed by Coal (121 projects), Petroleum & NG (105), and Power (98 projects — ₹5.71 lakh crore). Total 1,847 projects worth ₹40.54 lakh crore with 54.18% expenditure completed.
PIB Notes for UPSC 10 August 2026 covers important government updates and current affairs released through PIB. These UPSC PIB Notes are prepared for quick revision and cover key topics related to agriculture, government schemes, environment, infrastructure, social welfare, culture and international developments.
These PIB Current Affairs 10 August 2026 notes are useful for both UPSC Prelims 2026 and UPSC Mains 2026 preparation. Important facts, government initiatives and policy developments are presented in an exam-oriented format for effective daily revision.
Use these PIB Notes for UPSC as part of your daily current affairs preparation and revise important government updates regularly for UPSC Prelims and Mains.
📚 Hindu Editorial Analysis Today
🎥 UPSC & TNPSC Video - Pdf Resources
🚀 Join Our Exam Preparation Community
Stay ahead in your preparation with daily exam-focused content, curated for UPSC, TNPSC, SSC and other competitive exams.
📲 Telegram Community
👉 5,000+ active aspirants
👉 50+ MCQs reflected in recent exams (2024 & 2025)
👉 Daily quizzes, PYQs & revision content
👉 Positive feedback from prelims-cleared candidates
▶️ YouTube Channel
👉 Daily Current Affairs videos
👉 Based on The Hindu, PIB, Government sources
👉 PYQ-focused explanation (UPSC, TNPSC)
👉 Short, exam-oriented analysis
📸 Instagram Updates
👉 Daily quick revision posts
👉 Exam facts & current affairs snippets
💼 LinkedIn
👉 Professional updates & exam insights
+Trusted by thousands of aspirants preparing for competitive exams