Daily Current Affairs & Analysis: PIB UPSC 10 October 2026

Welcome to the comprehensive edition of PIB UPSC 10 October 2026, synthesizing all official Government of India releases with exam-focused analysis, multi-statement practice drills, and official UPSC CSE PYQs.

Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

1. From Beacons to Landmarks: India’s Maritime Lighthouse Heritage & Tourism Transformation

📌 Key Highlights & Technological Evolution
  • National Lighthouse Network: India oversees a coastline extending over 11,000 km with 205 operational lighthouses administered by the Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) as highlighted in the official PIB UPSC 10 October 2026 maritime release.
  • Surging Tourism Footfall: Annual tourist footfall rose from 4 lakh visitors in 2014 to 18.63 lakh in 2024–25 across 75 lighthouses developed as heritage destinations (e.g., Mandvi, Dwarka, Tadri, Pamban, and Vizhinjam). 25 additional stations are slated for development.
  • 100% Solar & Digital AIS Backbone: All 205 lighthouses operate on solar power. Furthermore, 87 Automatic Identification System (AIS) shore stations have been installed under the SOLAS convention for real-time vessel tracking and maritime safety.
  • Historic Museums & Lothal Mega Museum: Dedicated lighthouse museums operate at Chennai, Mahabalipuram (7th-century Pallava port heritage), Alappuzha, Kannur, Muttom, Dwarka, and Gopnath. At Lothal NMHC (Gujarat), a world-record 77-metre-high Lighthouse Museum costing ₹266.11 crore is under development.
  • Inland Waterway Pioneers: Four 20-metre-high lighthouses are being constructed along the Brahmaputra River (National Waterway 2) at Pandu, Bogibeel, Silghat, and Biswanath Ghat with an outlay of ₹84 crore.
  • Indian Lighthouse Festivals: Celebrated at Fort Aguada (Goa, 2023), Puri (Odisha, 2024), and Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh, 2026).

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• Statutory Body: Directorate General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) functions under the Marine Aids to Navigation Act, 2021 (which repealed the colonial Lighthouse Act, 1927).

• Lothal Maritime Significance: Ancient Harappan port town on the Bhogava river (tributary of Sabarmati) featuring the world's earliest known tidal dockyard.

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q1. With reference to marine aids to navigation and lighthouse governance in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Marine Aids to Navigation Act, 2021 replaced the colonial Lighthouse Act of 1927 to include vessel traffic services and heritage tourism.
2. The National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) featuring the world’s tallest lighthouse museum is situated at Lothal, Gujarat.
3. India has operationalized its first inland waterway lighthouses along National Waterway 1 on the Ganga.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 2 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: India's first inland waterway lighthouses are being established along National Waterway 2 on the Brahmaputra River at Pandu, Bogibeel, Silghat, and Biswanath Ghat, not on NW-1.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2021)
Q2. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?
(a) Dholavira
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Rakhigarhi
(d) Ropar
Correct Answer: A ((a) Dholavira)
Explanation: Dholavira in the Rann of Kutch (Gujarat) is world-renowned for its sophisticated water harvesting network of cascading stone reservoirs and storm-water management.
Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare

2. PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY): One Year of Focused Transformation Across 100 Districts

📌 Key Highlights & Quantitative Progress
  • First Anniversary Milestone: PMDDKY completed its first operational year on 11th October 2026 (launched 11 Oct 2025). The 6-year scheme targets 100 Aspirational Agricultural Districts with at least one district per State/UT as monitored under the PIB UPSC 10 October 2026 agricultural dashboard.
  • Identification Parameters: Districts were selected based on three composite criteria: low agricultural productivity, low cropping intensity, and lower agricultural credit disbursement.
  • Convergence Framework: Synthesizes 36 Central schemes across 11 Ministries/Departments alongside State schemes and private CSR (mandatory CPSE adoption via DPE for FY 2026-27 and 2027-28).
  • Monitoring Metrics: Assessed via 121 indicators (74 output and 47 outcome indicators) through the NITI Aayog dashboard (pmddky.niti.gov.in). Average composite score of the 100 districts jumped from 18.85 (April 2026) to 46.89 (August 2026).
  • FPO Success Models:
    • Desaiganj FPO (Gadchiroli, Maharashtra): 3 tonnes/hr rice processing unit for Jay Sri Ram rice; ₹1.24 Cr turnover.
    • Tiptur FPO (Tumakuru, Karnataka): Supplying ball copra to French MNC; ₹1.60 Cr turnover; aggregated 138 tonnes.
    • Jaisalmer Krishi Fed (Rajasthan): IPM cumin farming across 2,000 acres using solar-powered sprinkler irrigation over 500 acres.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• Three-Tier Implementation: District Level (headed by DM/Collector), State Level (headed by Chief Secretary), National Level (National Executive Committee chaired by Union Agriculture Minister; Monitoring Committee chaired by Agriculture Secretary).

• Cropping Intensity: Ratio of Gross Cropped Area (GCA) to Net Sown Area (NSA) multiplied by 100.

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q3. Regarding the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY), consider the following statements:
1. The scheme exclusively focuses on 100 aspirational agricultural districts selected on criteria including cropping intensity and credit disbursement.
2. It operates through a fresh standalone budget allocation without converging any existing central schemes.
3. The District Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana Samiti is chaired by the District Collector.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 3 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: PMDDKY functions primarily through the convergence of 36 existing Central schemes across 11 Ministries, State schemes, and CPSE CSR funds, rather than being an isolated non-convergent scheme.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2016)
Q4. Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?
1. Reduction in weed
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Reduction in soil erosion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C ((c) 1 and 3 only)
Explanation: Drip irrigation supplies water directly to the plant roots, preventing widespread weed emergence and avoiding surface water runoff erosion. However, it does not inherently reduce soil salinity and can occasionally concentrate salts at the wetting perimeter.
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

3. BRICS Traditional and Indigenous Demonstration Games 2026 in Ahmedabad

📌 Key Highlights & Traditional Martial Disciplines
  • Non-Competitive Cultural Showcase: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Government of Gujarat hosted the BRICS Traditional and Indigenous Sports Demonstration Games 2026 at the Veer Savarkar Sports Complex, Ahmedabad, under India’s BRICS Chairship.
  • Core Objectives: Focuses on documentation, practitioner interaction, living heritage preservation, and people-to-people diplomatic cooperation through sports.
  • Diverse Global Indigenous Sports Exhibited:
    • India: Mallakhamb (aerial pole/rope gymnastics), Yogasana, and Kalaripayattu (ancient martial art of Kerala).
    • Brazil: Zarabatana (indigenous blowpipe), Corrida de Toras (log race), Brazilian Para-Jiu-jitsu, and Capoeira.
    • China: Wushu, Lion Dance, and Health Qigong.
    • Russia & Belarus: Gorodki (traditional skittles-throwing game) and Sambo (Soviet martial art).
    • Iran: Zoorkhaneh (ancient Persian heroic gymnasium discipline), Haft Sang, and Ghanieh.
    • South Africa: Kgati (indigenous rope-skipping) and Iintonga (traditional stick-fighting).
    • Ethiopia: Ethiopian Wrestling (Tegel), Gena (traditional field hockey), and Selus Gebeta.
    • Kazakhstan: Asyk Atu, Togyzkumalak, and Qazaq Kuresi.
    • Bolivia: Lucha de Cholitas, Tinku, Rayuela, Trompo, Cachinas, and Carrera de Sacos.
    • UAE: Al Tabbah.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• Kalaripayattu: One of the oldest surviving fighting systems in the world, originating in Kerala; mentioned in Vadakkan Pattukal folklore.

• Mallakhamb: Traditional Indian sport where gymnasts perform aerial yoga postures on a vertical wooden pole; recognized as the state sport of Madhya Pradesh.

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q5. Consider the following pairs of traditional sports and their originating countries/regions:
1. Kalaripayattu : Kerala, India
2. Capoeira : Brazil
3. Zoorkhaneh : Iran
4. Gorodki : South Africa
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct Answer: C (Only three pairs)
Explanation: Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Gorodki is an ancient folk sports game from Russia and Belarus, whereas South Africa's traditional games include Kgati and Iintonga.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2014)
Q6. With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?
(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in parts of South India.
(b) It is an ancient style of bronze and brasswork still found in southern parts of Coromandel area.
(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar.
(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India.
Correct Answer: D ((d) Ancient martial art in South India)
Explanation: Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art practiced primarily in Kerala and adjacent parts of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, combining strikes, weaponry, and physical flexibility.
Ministry of Tribal Affairs

4. Second Regional Review Conference on Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 in Kolkata

📌 Key Highlights & Implementation Trajectory
  • Multi-State Review: Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) convened the 2nd Regional Review Conference in Kolkata reviewing 8 States: West Bengal, Assam, Tripura, Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh (following the 1st Southern review in Bengaluru).
  • National Claim Disposal Metrics: As of 31st August 2026, over 54 lakh claims have been received nationwide, ~25 lakh titles distributed, 11 lakh claims pending, and over 18 lakh claims rejected. Substantial pendency remains concentrated in MP, Odisha, and Assam.
  • Digitization & Revenue Record Integration: Implementation of MoTA advisory dated 24 June 2026 mandating full incorporation of Record of Forest Rights into State Revenue and Forest records using GIS and the National FRA Portal/Mobile App.
  • Community Forest Resource Rights (CFRR) & PVTG Habitat Rights: Emphasized Gram Sabha authority in formulating Community Forest Resource Management Plans under DA-JGUA convergence, and sensitive delineation of Habitat Rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) under the guidelines of 5 January 2026.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• Statutory Basis: Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs (not MoEFCC).

• Eligibility for OTFDs: Non-ST forest dwellers must prove continuous residence and dependence on forest land for at least three generations (75 years) prior to 13 December 2005.

• Three-Tier Verification: Gram Sabha initiates claims -> Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) examines -> District Level Committee (DLC) gives final approval.

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q7. Under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, consider the following statements:
1. The Gram Sabha is the competent authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of Individual and Community Forest Rights.
2. Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFDs) must establish residence in the forest for at least 50 years prior to the cut-off date.
3. The final approval of forest rights vests with the District Level Committee (DLC).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 3 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Section 2(o) of the FRA 2006, OTFDs must prove residence in forest lands for at least three generations (defined as 75 years, where one generation = 25 years) prior to 13 December 2005.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2018)
Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 2 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Critical Wildlife Habitat is defined in FRA 2006; Baigas of MP were the first PVTG to get habitat rights). Statement 3 is incorrect: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal ministry for FRA and Habitat Rights, not MoEFCC.
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

5. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) Disburses ₹2.02 Crore ABS Funds from Seed Sector

📌 Key Highlights & Equitable Benefit-Sharing Modalities
  • Direct Grassroots ABS Disbursement: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) disbursed ₹2.02 crore among 27 State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) and 3 UT Biodiversity Councils received from commercial seed companies (Syngenta, Bayer, East West Seeds, etc.) for utilization of agricultural biological resources (rice, tomato, eggplant, bottle gourd, etc.).
  • Apportionment by Cultivation Area: Where biological resources were procured through open markets and individual conservers could not be identified, NBA apportioned funds based on the state-wise cultivation area of the respective crops published by the Ministry of Agriculture.
  • Top Beneficiary States: Top 10 States received ₹1.43 crore, led by Madhya Pradesh (₹23.81 lakh), West Bengal (₹23.32 lakh), Odisha (₹19.75 lakh), Bihar (₹17.28 lakh), and Gujarat (₹13.29 lakh).
  • Cumulative Milestone: NBA’s cumulative ABS disbursements reached ₹202.00 crore, supporting Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) and People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs).
  • Global Alignment: Directly fulfills Target 13 (fair & equitable sharing of genetic resources) and Target 19 (resource mobilization) of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KM-GBF) ahead of CBD COP 17 in Yerevan, Armenia.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• Biological Diversity Act, 2002: Established a 3-tier structure: NBA at National level (HQ: Chennai), SBB at State level, and BMCs at Local body level.

• Nagoya Protocol (2010): Supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) focused on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS).

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q9. With reference to Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements:
1. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) has its statutory headquarters in New Delhi.
2. When individual benefit claimers cannot be identified, ABS proceeds can be distributed to State Biodiversity Boards based on crop cultivation area.
3. Local Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are mandated to prepare People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B (2 and 3 only)
Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 with its headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, not New Delhi.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2012)
Q10. How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on factor level mutation.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 3 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: NBA does not conduct or directly supervise factor level mutation research; it is a regulatory authority overseeing conservation, sustainable use, and ABS compliance.
Ministry of Defence / Indian Navy

6. Launch of Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel ‘Shreyas’ (Yard 3040) at GRSE, Kolkata

📌 Key Highlights & Indigenous Shipbuilding
  • Indigenous NGOPV Launch: Yard 3040, christened as ‘Shreyas’ (Sanskrit for "Most Excellent"), was launched at Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, in the presence of Vice Chief of Naval Staff VAdm Ajay Kochhar.
  • Concurrent Dual-Yard Construction: The Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) project is concurrently underway across two premier Indian shipyards: GRSE (Kolkata) and Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL, Goa).
  • Operational Multi-Domain Capabilities: Designed to carry out maritime interdiction, exclusive economic zone (EEZ) surveillance, anti-piracy, search and rescue (SAR), offshore asset protection, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR).
  • Atmanirbhar Defence Push: Features indigenous propulsion, combat management system (CMS), state-of-the-art sensors, and weapon suites with high indigenous content.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• GRSE Kolkata: Premier Defence Public Sector Undertaking (DPSU) that built India's first indigenous warship (INS Ajay, 1961) and ASW corvettes (Kamorta class).

• UNCLOS Maritime Zones: Territorial Waters (12 nautical miles), Contiguous Zone (24 nm), and Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ, 200 nm from baseline).

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q11. With reference to the Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (NGOPVs) being built for the Indian Navy, consider the following statements:
1. The NGOPVs are being concurrently constructed by GRSE Kolkata and Goa Shipyard Limited.
2. The primary operational mandate of OPVs includes deep-sea submarine warfare with nuclear deterrence capability.
3. The vessel ‘Shreyas’ represents an indigenously designed surface combatant under Make in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 3 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: OPVs are lightly armed surface vessels meant for EEZ surveillance, anti-piracy, maritime interdiction, and HADR missions; they do not possess strategic nuclear deterrence or deep submarine strike capabilities.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2017)
Q12. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Correct Answer: C ((c) Bypassing Pakistan for Central Asia access)
Explanation: Developing Chabahar Port in Iran provides India direct maritime-land connectivity to landlocked Afghanistan, INSTC, and Central Asian republics without transit through Pakistan.
Ministry of Communications & ICAR

7. UN Global Initiative on AI for Agri-Food Systems (GI-AI4FS) at IMC 2026

📌 Key Highlights & Technological Architecture
  • Multilateral Digital Agritech Forum: Telecommunication Engineering Centre (TEC, DoT) in partnership with ICAR co-hosted the 2nd Meeting of the UN Global Initiative on AI for Agri-Food Systems (GI-AI4FS) alongside India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2026 in New Delhi.
  • UN Agency Convergence: GI-AI4FS is coordinated by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in partnership with FAO, IFAD, and the World Food Programme (WFP).
  • Precision Agritech Deployment: Promotes integration of IoT connected sensors, remote weather stations, agricultural drones, satellite imaging, and AI algorithms for crop disease detection, soil moisture optimization, and supply-chain traceability.
  • International Hackathon: Preceded by a 2-day Hackathon on ‘AI Innovation for Resilient Agri-Food Systems’ creating interoperable, open-standard solutions for smallholder farmers.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• ITU (International Telecommunication Union): UN specialized agency for ICT founded in 1865 (HQ: Geneva, Switzerland); oldest UN specialized agency.

• FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization): Specialized agency founded in 1945 (HQ: Rome, Italy); publishes the biennial State of Food and Agriculture (SOFA) and Food Price Index.

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q13. With reference to the Global Initiative on AI for Agri-Food Systems (GI-AI4FS), consider the following statements:
1. It is a UN global initiative coordinated by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in collaboration with FAO, IFAD, and WFP.
2. In India, the Telecommunication Engineering Centre (DoT) and ICAR are joint nodal collaborating bodies.
3. Its core objective is to replace traditional seed preservation with laboratory AI-generated synthetics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 2 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative focuses on applying AI and IoT for precision farming, disease early warning, resource efficiency, and supply chain logistics, not replacing traditional seed banks.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2020)
Q14. With reference to the ‘Internet of Things (IoT)’, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It allows physical devices to be connected over the internet for data sharing.
2. It can be applied to automate urban infrastructure like traffic and water grids.
3. It enables smart farming through connected field sensors.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D ((d) 1, 2 and 3)
Explanation: IoT connects physical sensors, appliances, and industrial devices over networks to facilitate automated communication, real-time analytics, and automated decision-making across urban grids, smart farming, and logistics.
Ministry of Defence / Indian Air Force

8. Raksha Mantri Addresses Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 at Jodhpur

📌 Key Highlights & Aerospace Doctrine
  • Multinational Air Combat Exercise: Second edition of Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 hosted by the Indian Air Force (IAF) at Air Force Station Jodhpur (26 September to 12 October 2026).
  • Global Participation: Brought together 7 Friendly Foreign Countries (Australia, Bangladesh, France, Germany, Sri Lanka, UAE, USA) alongside 32 observer nations.
  • Modern Warfare Doctrine: Raksha Mantri noted that modern military capability is defined by multi-domain integration (space, cyber, electromagnetic spectrum) and the "speed of sensing, understanding, deciding and acting" rather than mere platform counts.
  • Showcasing Indigenous Platforms: Showcased LCA Tejas, Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) Prachand, ALH Dhruv, and Rudra, alongside the Akash surface-to-air missile and indigenous AESA radars. Reaffirmed commitment to the 5th-generation Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) program.
  • Operational Provenance: Referenced lessons from Operation Sindoor emphasizing calibrated precision air strikes and credible deterrence.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• LCH Prachand: First indigenous multi-role combat helicopter designed and manufactured by HAL, capable of operating at 5,000 meters altitude (Siachen Glacier).

• AMCA (Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft): India's indigenous 5th-generation stealth, multi-role, twin-engine fighter aircraft program being developed by ADA and DRDO.

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q15. With reference to Exercise ‘Tarang Shakti 2026’, consider the following statements:
1. It is the largest multinational air exercise hosted indigenously by the Indian Air Force.
2. The exercise was conducted at Air Force Station Jodhpur with participation from multiple foreign air forces.
3. India's indigenously developed Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) ‘Prachand’ participated in the exercise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: D (1, 2 and 3)
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Tarang Shakti is the IAF's flagship multinational exercise, held at AFS Jodhpur in its 2026 edition, and featured indigenous platforms including LCA Tejas and LCH Prachand.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2016)
Q16. What is ‘Astra’, recently seen in the news?
(a) An indigenous Beyond-Visual-Range (BVR) Air-to-Air missile developed by DRDO
(b) An anti-tank guided missile developed by DRDO
(c) A surface-to-air missile developed with Israeli collaboration
(d) A cruise missile developed jointly by India and Russia
Correct Answer: A ((a) Indigenous BVR Air-to-Air missile)
Explanation: Astra is an all-weather, state-of-the-art beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM) developed by DRDO to equip Indian fighter aircraft like Su-30MKI and LCA Tejas.
Ministry of Corporate Affairs

9. Third National Conference on Corporate Social Responsibility (NCCSR 2026)

📌 Key Highlights & Governance Mandate
  • Transition from Compliance to Commitment: Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) concluded NCCSR 2026 under the theme “Re-envisioning the Spirit of CSR for Viksit Bharat: From Compliance to Commitment” in New Delhi.
  • Addressing Geographic Imbalances: Deliberations highlighted regional skew in CSR spending, calling for decentralized deployment to aspirational districts and North-Eastern states rather than concentrating exclusively in industrialized states.
  • Technological Convergence & CSR Exchange: Recommended upgrading the CSR Exchange Portal using data integration and AI-based credibility verification of non-governmental implementing agencies.
  • Investing in Care & Women Empowerment: Emphasized childcare, elder care, and care worker skilling to expand female labor force participation.
  • Prime Minister's Internship Scheme (PMIS) Linkage: MCA urged corporates to leverage CSR to fund industry-led apprenticeships under PMIS to bridge skill deficits.

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• Statutory Mandate: Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates companies with Net Worth ≥ ₹500 Cr, Turnover ≥ ₹1000 Cr, or Net Profit ≥ ₹5 Cr to spend at least 2% of average net profits of preceding 3 financial years on CSR.

• Schedule VII: Exhaustive list of eligible CSR activities under the Companies Act, 2013 (poverty eradication, education, gender equality, environmental sustainability, PM CARES, etc.).

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q17. Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 relating to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), consider the following statements:
1. Companies meeting the financial threshold must spend at least 2% of the average net profits made during the three immediately preceding financial years.
2. Political contributions made to recognized political parties are recognized as eligible CSR activities under Schedule VII.
3. Unspent CSR funds from ongoing projects must be transferred to an ‘Unspent Corporate Social Responsibility Account’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: A (1 and 3 only)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Contributions made directly or indirectly to any political party under Section 182 of the Act are strictly excluded from qualifying as CSR expenditure.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2014)
Q18. In India, which of the following can be considered as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities under the Companies Act, 2013?
1. Eradicating hunger, poverty and malnutrition
2. Promoting gender equality and empowering women
3. Contributions to political parties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B ((b) 1 and 2 only)
Explanation: Schedule VII includes poverty alleviation, health, education, and women empowerment. Political party contributions are specifically disallowed from CSR counting.
Ministry of Finance / Institute of Economic Growth

10. Fifth Kautilya Economic Conclave (KEC 2026): ‘Resilience in an Age of Flux’

📌 Key Highlights & Macroeconomic Deliberations
  • Global Economic Conclave: Institute of Economic Growth (IEG) in partnership with the Ministry of Finance organized the 5th Kautilya Economic Conclave (KEC 2026) in New Delhi under the theme “Resilience in an Age of Flux”.
  • Inaugural Focus: Inaugurated by Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan, who emphasized that economic resilience cannot be divorced from social resilience and inclusive grassroots welfare.
  • Strategic Plenaries:
    • Finance Plenary: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman addressed macroeconomic stability, investment expansion, and navigating geoeconomic fragmentation.
    • Digital Economy: Communications Minister Jyotiraditya Scindia delivered address on ‘Connected India, Empowered Finance: Building Trusted Digital Infrastructure for the AI Economy’.
    • Cultural Economics: Culture Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat spoke on ‘Culture as Capital: From Heritage to Horizons’.
    • Global Geopolitics: External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar concluded on ‘India and the World: Adaptive by Design’, highlighting strategic autonomy in a contested international order.
  • Institutional Heritage: Past editions of KEC: “Redefining the Future” (2022), “Navigating a World on Fire” (2023), “The Indian Era” (2024), and “Seeking Prosperity in Turbulent Times” (2025).

🏛️ UPSC Prelims Static Pointers:

• Institute of Economic Growth (IEG): Established in 1952 by V.K.R.V. Rao; premier autonomous academic research institute in New Delhi.

• Kautilya's Arthashastra: Ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy; authored by Chanakya (Vishnugupta) during the Mauryan Empire; conceptualizes the Saptanga theory of state.

Targeted Practice MCQ
Q19. With reference to the Kautilya Economic Conclave (KEC) and economic governance in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Kautilya Economic Conclave is organized annually by the Ministry of Finance in partnership with the Institute of Economic Growth.
2. The theme for the 5th edition of KEC 2026 was ‘Resilience in an Age of Flux’.
3. In Kautilya’s Arthashastra, the concept of ‘Kosha’ (Treasury) forms one of the vital organs of the Saptanga theory of state.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: D (1, 2 and 3)
Explanation: All three statements are correct. KEC is a joint initiative of MoF and IEG held annually since 2022; the 2026 theme was 'Resilience in an Age of Flux'; and in ancient Indian statecraft, Kautilya identified Kosha (treasury) as essential for the stability and defence of the realm.
Official Exam PYQ (UPSC CSE 2020)
Q20. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: D (1, 2 and 3)
Explanation: All three statements are correct under Kautilya's Arthashastra: judicial enslavement existed (Dasa), female slaves bearing sons to their masters gained emancipation, and the child acquired legitimate legal status.

⚡ Prelims Quick Recall Fact Matrix (PIB UPSC 10 October 2026)

Topic / Initiative Nodal Body / Location Core Objective / Key Metric Key Prelims Facts & Statutory Base
Lighthouse Tourism & Modernization DGLL / MoPSW Maritime heritage tourism & navigation Marine Aids to Navigation Act 2021; 205 solar lighthouses; 77m museum at Lothal; 4 NW-2 lighthouses.
PM-DDKY 1st Anniversary MoA&FW / NITI Aayog 100 Aspirational Agricultural Districts Convergence of 36 schemes; 121 indicators; 3-tier structure; avg score rose from 18.85 to 46.89.
BRICS Indigenous Games 2026 MYAS / Ahmedabad Demonstration of traditional native sports Non-competitive; Mallakhamb, Kalaripayattu, Capoeira, Wushu, Zoorkhaneh, Gorodki, Iintonga.
Forest Rights Act (FRA) Review Ministry of Tribal Affairs / Kolkata Clearing pendency & digitizing title records FRA 2006; 54L claims; DA-JGUA CFR management; PVTG Habitat Rights (guidelines of Jan 2026).
NBA ABS Seed Fund Disbursement National Biodiversity Authority / Chennai ₹2.02 Cr distributed to 27 SBBs & 3 UTs Apportioned by crop area; cumulative ABS reaches ₹202 Cr; KM-GBF Target 13 & 19; COP 17 Armenia.
NGOPV ‘Shreyas’ Launch GRSE Kolkata / Indian Navy Next Gen Offshore Patrol Vessel Concurrent building at GRSE & GSL; EEZ surveillance, anti-piracy, HADR; Make in India.
UN GI-AI4FS Meeting TEC (DoT) & ICAR / IMC 2026 AI & IoT for resilient agri-food systems Coordinated by ITU, FAO, IFAD & WFP; smallholder precision agriculture and traceability.
Exercise Tarang Shakti 2026 Indian Air Force / Jodhpur Multinational air combat exercise 7 foreign nations + 32 observers; multi-domain speed of decision; LCA Tejas, LCH Prachand, AMCA.
National Conference on CSR 2026 IICA / Ministry of Corporate Affairs Compliance to commitment for Viksit Bharat Section 135 Companies Act 2013; decentralized spending; CSR Exchange; Care economy; PMIS linkage.
5th Kautilya Economic Conclave Institute of Economic Growth / MoF ‘Resilience in an Age of Flux’ Inaugurated by VP; high-level plenaries on geoeconomics, trusted AI finance, and strategic autonomy.

💡 Frequently Asked Questions (UPSC High-Yield Dimensions)

India has transitioned its 205 lighthouses into solar-powered automated beacons with 87 AIS shore stations, while transforming 75 stations into heritage tourism destinations and constructing the world's tallest 77m Lighthouse Museum at Lothal NMHC.
Districts are selected based on low productivity, low cropping intensity, and lower credit disbursement, converging 36 Central schemes with 121 indicators over a six-year period.
It preserves non-Olympic native heritage like Mallakhamb and Kalaripayattu, promoting soft power diplomacy and cultural exchange among BRICS nations in Ahmedabad.
NBA apportions funds among State Biodiversity Boards based on crop cultivation area statistics published by the Ministry of Agriculture to finance Biodiversity Management Committees.
Under the theme 'Resilience in an Age of Flux', it emphasized economic inclusion, strategic autonomy, trusted AI digital infrastructure, and long-term macroeconomic stability.

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