The Indian Express Daily Quiz 1 October 2026: 20 MCQs with Authentic UPSC PYQs & Solutions

🏛️ UPSC PRELIMS DAILY PRACTICE PORTAL 🗓️ 1 October 2026

The Indian Express & The Hindu Daily Current Affairs Quiz

Master 10 high-yield editorial themes with paired Expected Current Affairs MCQs immediately followed by authentic Official UPSC CSE Past Year Questions (PYQs).

📌 10 Paired Editorial Topics Covered Today:

1. Special Intensive Revision (SIR) & Art 324 2. Green Energy Corridor-III & BESS 3. Minimum Support Price (A2, A2+FL, C2) 4. Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) & Monsoon 5. Green Crackers & PESO 6. CAFE-III Norms & BEE 7. IIP & Eight Core Industries 8. Household Debt-to-GDP & Financial Savings 9. Parliamentary Privileges (Art 105 & 194) 10. PEMSR Act 2013 & NAMASTE Scheme

Correct: 0

Wrong: 0

Score: 0/20

Q1 Expected MCQ

Topic 1: Electoral Rolls, SIR & Form 7 Rules

With reference to the electoral roll revision procedures and voter registration in India, consider the following statements:

1.Form 6 is used exclusively for the inclusion of names of new electors, whereas Form 7 is utilized for objecting to proposed inclusions or seeking deletion of existing entries.

2.Under statutory election rules, an Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) can summarily delete voters in bulk upon receiving Form 7 without issuing individual written notices.

3.The multi-member Election Commission of India acts collectively as a constitutional institution under Article 324.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, Form 6 is for new voter enrolment, Form 7 for objection/deletion, and Form 8 for correction/shifting.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Deletions cannot be done summarily or in bulk. Natural justice mandates individual notice, verification by Booth Level Officers (BLOs), and recorded reasons.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 324 vests election superintendence in the Commission as an institutional body.

Static Booster (RPA 1950): Section 20 defines 'ordinary resident'. Temporary absence does not disqualify an elector.

Q2 UPSC CSE 2017 PYQ

Topic 1: Election Commission of India

Consider the following statements:

1.The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2.Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3.Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

Correct Answer: (D) 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: ECI is a 3-member body (1 CEC + 2 ECs).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: ECI independently determines the election schedule.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under the Election Symbols Order, 1968, ECI resolves disputes on party splits/mergers.

Official UPSC CSE 2017: Tests Article 324 structure and quasi-judicial authority.

Q3 Expected MCQ

Topic 2: Green Energy Corridor-III & BESS

With reference to India's 'Green Energy Corridor (GEC)' scheme and grid integration initiatives, consider the following statements:

1.GEC Phase-III focuses on synchronizing high-capacity Renewable Energy Zones (REZs) and large-scale Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) into the National Grid.

2.Under the intra-state transmission component of GEC, the Central Government provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA) covering 100% of the project cost.

3.Transmission lines built under GEC facilitate evacuation of power from both solar parks and offshore/onshore wind complexes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is correct: GEC-III evacuates power from mega renewable zones with BESS integration.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Central Financial Assistance (CFA) provides 33% of the intra-state project cost, not 100%.
• Statement 3 is correct: It handles both solar and wind energy across grid corridors.

Static Booster: India targets 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030 (Panchamrit pledge).

Q4 UPSC CSE 2016 PYQ

Topic 2: Renewable Energy Alliances

Consider the following statements:

1.The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.

2.The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (A) 1 only

• Statement 1 is correct: ISA was launched at COP21 in Paris in 2015.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Not all UN members have signed and ratified the ISA framework.

HQ: National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE), Gurugram, India.

Q5 Expected MCQ

Topic 3: MSP Cost Concepts (A2, A2+FL, C2)

Regarding the determination of Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India, consider the following statements:

1.Cost A2 covers only actual paid-out expenses incurred by the farmer on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and hired labour.

2.Cost C2 includes paid-out costs, imputed value of unpaid family labour, plus rental value of owned land and interest on fixed capital.

3.The Central Government currently fixes MSP for mandated crops at a minimum benchmark of 1.5 times the comprehensive cost (C2).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Cost A2 represents all paid-out expenses.
• Statement 2 is correct: Cost C2 = A2 + FL + land rent + interest on fixed capital.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Government fixes MSP at 1.5 times $A2+FL$, not 1.5 times $C2$.

CACP Mandate: Recommends MSP for 22 mandated crops + FRP for Sugarcane.

Q6 UPSC CSE 2020 PYQ

Topic 3: Mandatory MSP Crops

Consider the following:

1.Cotton

2.Groundnut

3.Nigerseed

4.Sesamum

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs announces the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• CCEA announces MSP for 22 mandated agricultural crops including all four: Cotton, Groundnut, Nigerseed, and Sesamum.

Mandated Crops (22): 7 Cereals, 5 Pulses, 7 Oilseeds, 3 Commercial crops.

Q7 Expected MCQ

Topic 4: Southwest Monsoon & IOD Dynamics

With reference to the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) and its impact on the Indian Monsoon, consider the following statements:

1.A positive IOD event is characterized by warmer sea surface temperatures in the western Indian Ocean relative to the eastern tropical Indian Ocean.

2.A positive IOD generally brings surplus rainfall to the Indian subcontinent and can neutralize the adverse drying effects of an El Niño.

3.A negative IOD leads to enhanced cloud formation and heavy precipitation over the Indian mainland while suppressing rainfall in Australia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Positive IOD = Warmer Arabian Sea / Western Indian Ocean & cooler eastern waters.
• Statement 2 is correct: Positive IOD enhances monsoon rains and offsets El Niño drying.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Negative IOD brings rains to Australia and dry conditions to India.

Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): Measured by the Dipole Mode Index (DMI).

Q8 UPSC CSE 2017 PYQ

Topic 4: Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)

With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.

2.An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Niño's impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B) 2 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: IOD is between Western Indian Ocean and Eastern Indian Ocean (not Pacific).
• Statement 2 is correct: Positive IOD can counter the adverse effects of El Niño.

Official UPSC CSE 2017: Assesses oceanographic teleconnections.

Q9 Expected MCQ

Topic 5: Green Crackers & CSIR Formulations

Consider the following statements regarding 'Green Crackers' developed in India:

1.Green crackers were conceptualized and developed by CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR-NEERI).

2.They do not contain hazardous chemical compounds such as barium nitrate, lithium, arsenic, and lead.

3.Green firecrackers completely eliminate the emission of particulate matter ($PM_{2.5}$ and $PM_{10}$) during explosion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: CSIR-NEERI developed SWAS, STAR, and SAFAL formulations.
• Statement 2 is correct: They ban toxic barium compounds and heavy metals.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Green crackers reduce PM emissions by 30-35%, they do not eliminate them completely.

PESO Mandate: Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation tests and certifies commercial production.

Q10 UPSC CSE 2019 / CAPF PYQ

Topic 5: PESO Regulatory Nodal Body

The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO), which regulates the manufacture, import, transport, and storage of explosives and hazardous chemicals in India, functions under which Ministry?

Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Ministry of Commerce and Industry (DPIIT)

Ministry of Home Affairs

Correct Answer: (C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (DPIIT)

• PESO functions under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Headquarters: Nagpur, Maharashtra.

Q11 Expected MCQ

Topic 6: CAFE-III Standards & Fuel Efficiency

With reference to Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) norms in India, consider the following statements:

1.CAFE norms evaluate individual vehicle model emissions independently rather than assessing the sales-weighted fleet average.

2.The norms are notified by the Ministry of Power through the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.

3.Upcoming CAFE-III norms provide super-credits and incentives for manufacturing Pure Electric Vehicles (EVs) and Strong Hybrid Electric Vehicles (SHEVs).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: CAFE targets are sales-weighted fleet-average $CO_2$ emissions, not individual vehicle models.
• Statement 2 is correct: BEE (Ministry of Power) defines standards under Energy Conservation Act 2001.
• Statement 3 is correct: CAFE-III awards super-credits for EVs and hybrids.

CAFE vs BS-VI: BS-VI controls tailpipe criteria pollutants ($NO_x, PM$); CAFE controls fleet fuel consumption & $CO_2$.

Q12 UPSC CSE 2019 PYQ

Topic 6: Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Labels

On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) star label?

1.Ceiling fans

2.Electric geysers

3.Tubular fluorescent lamps

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Under BEE's Standards & Labelling Scheme, star ratings apply across ceiling fans, electric geysers, and tubular fluorescent lamps.

Statutory Basis: BEE was established on 1 March 2002 under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.

Q13 Expected MCQ

Topic 7: Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Structure

Regarding the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) and Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI), consider the following statements:

1.In the sectoral classification of the IIP (Base Year 2011-12), Manufacturing holds the highest weightage exceeding 75%.

2.The Eight Core Industries comprise more than 40% of the total weight of items included in the IIP.

3.The monthly IIP figures are compiled and published by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Manufacturing weight is 77.63% in IIP.
• Statement 2 is correct: Eight Core Industries account for 40.27% of IIP weight.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: IIP is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), MoSPI (not DPIIT).

Base Year: Base year for IIP and Core Index is 2011-12.

Q14 UPSC CSE 2015 PYQ

Topic 7: Eight Core Industries Weights

In the 'Index of Eight Core Industries', which one of the following is given the highest weight?

Coal production

Electricity generation

Fertilizer production

Petroleum Refinery Products

Correct Answer: (D) Petroleum Refinery Products

• Refinery Products (28.04%) > Electricity (19.85%) > Steel (17.92%) > Coal (10.33%) > Crude Oil (8.98%) > Natural Gas (6.88%) > Cement (5.37%) > Fertilizers (2.63%).

Official UPSC CSE 2015: Tests macroeconomic core industry weights.

Q15 Expected MCQ

Topic 8: Household Financial Savings & Debt

In macroeconomic accounting in India, 'Net Financial Savings of Households' is defined as:

Total gross financial assets plus physical capital assets created by households.

Gross financial assets of households minus gross financial liabilities (borrowings) of households.

Total bank deposits of households adjusted for annual consumer price inflation.

Total investment in equity and mutual funds by retail investors.

Correct Answer: (B) Gross financial assets minus gross financial liabilities

• Net Household Financial Savings = (Gross Financial Assets: Deposits, Insurance, Funds) MINUS (Gross Liabilities: Bank & NBFC loans).

Macro Linkage: Household sector is the sole net supplier of financial savings in India.

Q16 UPSC CSE 2021 PYQ

Topic 8: Retail Financial Investment in G-Secs

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1.Retail investors through demat account can invest in 'Treasury Bills' and 'Government of India Dated Securities' in the primary market.

2.The 'Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching' (NDS-OM) is an electronic trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.

3.The 'Central Depository Services Ltd' is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Under RBI Retail Direct Scheme, retail investors can buy G-Secs/T-bills directly; NDS-OM is RBI's trading platform.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: CDSL is promoted by BSE and leading banks, not RBI.

Official UPSC CSE 2021: Sovereign debt markets.

Q17 Expected MCQ

Topic 9: Parliamentary Privileges (Articles 105 & 194)

With reference to Parliamentary Privileges under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1.A Member of Parliament enjoys complete freedom of speech in Parliament and is not liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given in the House.

2.Protection from arrest in civil cases is available to MPs during the continuation of the session and 40 days before and 40 days after the session.

3.Parliamentary privilege extends immunity against arrest and preventive detention in criminal offences and matters of national security.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Freedom of speech in House (Art 105(2)) and 40-day civil immunity (CPC Sec 135A) are protected.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Privileges do NOT provide immunity against criminal charges or preventive detention (see Sita Soren v. UOI 2024).

Constitutional Articles: Art 105 (Parliament), Art 194 (State Legislatures).

Q18 UPSC CSE 2014 PYQ

Topic 9: Powers & Privileges of Parliament

Which of the following are the privileges and immunities of the members of Parliament in India?

1.Freedom of speech in Parliament.

2.Immunity to a member from any action in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament.

3.Immunity to a member from arrest in civil cases during the continuance of the session.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• All three privileges are expressly protected under Article 105 of the Constitution and Code of Civil Procedure.

Official UPSC CSE 2014: Assesses Parliamentary immunity.

Q19 Expected MCQ

Topic 10: PEMSR Act 2013 & NAMASTE Scheme

Regarding the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 (PEMSR Act) and the NAMASTE Scheme, consider the following statements:

1.The PEMSR Act, 2013 strictly prohibits direct hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks without prescribed safety gear and mechanical devices.

2.The NAMASTE Scheme is a joint initiative implemented exclusively by the Ministry of Rural Development.

3.The NAMASTE Scheme aims for zero fatalities in sanitation work and 100% mechanization of sewer cleaning operations across Indian cities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is correct: PEMSR Act 2013 bans hazardous manual cleaning of sewers/septic tanks.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: NAMASTE is jointly run by Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (MoSJE) and Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA), not Rural Development.
• Statement 3 is correct: Targets zero fatalities and 100% mechanization.

Constitutional Basis: Article 21 (Dignity) & Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability).

Q20 UPSC CSE 2016 PYQ

Topic 10: Manual Scavenging Campaigns

'Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan' is a national campaign to:

Rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood.

Release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood.

Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers.

Release bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them.

Correct Answer: (C) Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate manual scavengers

• Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign to end manual scavenging and restore human dignity.

Official UPSC CSE 2016: Social justice grassroots movements.

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