The Indian Express Daily Quiz 2 October 2026: 20 MCQs with Authentic UPSC PYQs & Solutions

🏛️ UPSC PRELIMS DAILY PRACTICE PORTAL 🗓️ 2 October 2026

The Indian Express & The Hindu Daily Current Affairs Quiz

Master 10 high-yield editorial themes with paired Expected Current Affairs MCQs immediately followed by authentic Official UPSC CSE Past Year Questions (PYQs).

📌 10 Paired Editorial Topics Covered Today:

1. Global AI Governance & Frontier Models 2. India's Semiconductor & Chip Strategy 3. Kaliningrad Exclave & Baltic Geopolitics 4. Strait of Hormuz & Chabahar Port 5. Petroleum & Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) 6. Local Body Quotas, Triple Test & Articles 243D/T 7. Employment Elasticity & ASI vs PLFS 8. Universal Newborn Screening (ANMOL) 9. Forest Rights Act 2006 & Gram Sabha Rights 10. National Air Quality Index (AQI) Breakpoints

Correct: 0

Wrong: 0

Score: 0/20

Q1 Expected MCQ

Topic 1: Frontier AI & Global Governance

In the context of global Artificial Intelligence (AI) governance, consider the following statements:

1.'Frontier AI' refers to highly capable foundation models that possess dangerous capabilities sufficient to pose severe risks to public safety.

2.'Compute Governance' involves tracking and regulating the hardware, advanced semiconductors, and data centers utilized to train large-scale AI models.

3.The Bletchley Declaration on AI Safety is a legally binding international treaty signed under the auspices of the United Nations General Assembly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Frontier AI describes cutting-edge, general-purpose models at the frontier of capabilities that pose catastrophic or societal risks.
• Statement 2 is correct: Compute governance monitors physical compute infrastructure (such as GPUs/TPUs and training runs exceeding $10^{26}$ FLOPS) as an enforceable chokepoint.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Bletchley Declaration (2023) is a multilateral non-binding political declaration signed by 28 nations (including India, US, UK, China, and EU), not a binding UN treaty.

Static Booster: India is a founding member of the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) launched in 2020.

Q2 UPSC CSE 2020 PYQ

Topic 1: Applications of Artificial Intelligence

With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?

1.Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units

2.Create meaningful short stories and songs

3.Disease diagnosis

4.Text-to-Speech Conversion

5.Wireless transmission of electrical energy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2, 3 and 5 only

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

2, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

• Explanation: AI optimizes energy grids (1), generates creative media via GenAI (2), analyzes medical imaging (3), and converts text to speech (4). However, wireless power transmission (5) is governed by electromagnetic induction/microwaves physics, not an AI software capability.

Official UPSC CSE 2020: Tested functional boundaries of AI technology.

Q3 Expected MCQ

Topic 2: India Semiconductor Mission & RISC-V

With reference to the semiconductor value chain and India's chip initiatives, consider the following statements:

1.A 'Fabless' semiconductor company specializes in chip architecture and circuit design while outsourcing the physical fabrication to foundries.

2.The Design-Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme under the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) provides financial reimbursement only for setting up physical silicon wafer fabrication plants.

3.RISC-V is an open-standard Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) that enables royalty-free semiconductor processor development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Fabless companies (e.g., Nvidia, Qualcomm) focus on design and IP, outsourcing manufacturing to pure-play foundries (e.g., TSMC).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: DLI specifically offers financial incentives and design infrastructure support for domestic chip design, EDA tools, and IP development (not for setting up fabs).
• Statement 3 is correct: RISC-V is an open-source ISA developed at UC Berkeley, providing an open alternative to proprietary ARM and x86 architectures.

Nodal Agency: India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) operates under Digital India Corporation, Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY).

Q4 UPSC CSE 2022 PYQ

Topic 2: Open-Source Software & Digital Platforms

Consider the following:

1.Aarogya Setu

2.CoWIN

3.DigiLocker

4.DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• Under the Government of India's Policy on Adoption of Open Source Software (OSS), public digital goods including Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DigiLocker, and DIKSHA are developed using open-source architecture.

India Stack: Comprises open APIs and public digital infrastructure.

Q5 Expected MCQ

Topic 3: Kaliningrad Exclave & Baltic Region

Consider the following statements regarding the geopolitical region of 'Kaliningrad':

1.Kaliningrad is a non-contiguous Russian exclave situated on the Baltic Sea coast.

2.It shares terrestrial land borders exclusively with Poland and Lithuania.

3.The Suwalki Gap is a narrow land corridor connecting Kaliningrad directly with mainland Russia through Belarus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Kaliningrad is Russia's westernmost territory, an ice-free Baltic Sea exclave bordered by Poland to the south and Lithuania to the north and east.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Suwalki Gap is a narrow strip of Poland-Lithuania border that separates Kaliningrad from Belarus (Russia's ally); it does NOT connect Kaliningrad directly with mainland Russia.

Strategic Value: Headquarters of the Russian Baltic Fleet with nuclear-capable Iskander missile systems.

Q6 UPSC CSE 2019 PYQ

Topic 3: Bordering Seas & European Geography

Consider the following pairs:

1.Adriatic Sea — Albania

2.Black Sea — Croatia

3.Caspian Sea — Kazakhstan

4.Mediterranean Sea — Morocco

5.Red Sea — Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only

• Pair 1 is correct: Adriatic Sea borders Albania, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro, Slovenia, Bosnia.
• Pair 2 is incorrect: Croatia borders the Adriatic Sea, NOT the Black Sea.
• Pair 3 is correct: Caspian Sea borders Kazakhstan, Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran, Turkmenistan.
• Pair 4 is correct: Morocco borders the Mediterranean Sea.
• Pair 5 is incorrect: Syria borders the Mediterranean Sea, NOT the Red Sea.

Official UPSC CSE 2019: Core map-based question on regional water bodies.

Q7 Expected MCQ

Topic 4: Strait of Hormuz & Chabahar Port

Consider the following statements regarding maritime chokepoints and connectivity in West Asia:

1.The Strait of Hormuz directly connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.

2.Iran's Chabahar Port is located inside the Persian Gulf, behind the Strait of Hormuz.

3.Chabahar Port provides India with direct maritime and transit access to Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is correct: The Strait of Hormuz separates Iran from Oman and UAE, linking the Persian Gulf with Gulf of Oman.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Chabahar Port lies in southeastern Iran on the Gulf of Oman (open Indian Ocean), OUTSIDE the Strait of Hormuz.
• Statement 3 is correct: Shahid Beheshti terminal at Chabahar allows direct transit to the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) bypassing Karachi/Gwadar.

Strategic Agreement: India Ports Global Limited (IPGL) operates the Shahid Beheshti terminal under a 10-year bilateral agreement.

Q8 UPSC CSE 2017 PYQ

Topic 4: Strategic Importance of Chabahar Port

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

Choose the most appropriate option:

India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.

India's relations with oil-producing Arab states will be strengthened.

India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Correct Answer: (C) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

• Official UPSC 2017 Prelims Question: Chabahar offers an unhindered sea-land route via Iran and the Zaranj-Delaram highway into Afghanistan and landlocked Central Asian Republics.

Strategic Geography: Chabahar is located just ~72 nautical miles west of China-operated Gwadar port in Pakistan.

Q9 Expected MCQ

Topic 5: LPG Pricing, PNG Drive 3.0 & GST

With reference to fuel pricing and gas distribution in India, consider the following statements:

1.The domestic retail price of non-subsidized Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) in India is linked to the Saudi Aramco Contract Price (Saudi CP).

2.Piped Natural Gas (PNG) and Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) are currently included under the unified Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime.

3.The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) authorizes entities to establish City Gas Distribution (CGD) networks across geographical areas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is correct: LPG prices follow the Import Parity Price (IPP) formula determined by the monthly Saudi CP benchmark.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Natural Gas (and PNG/CNG), along with Crude Oil, Petrol, Diesel, and ATF, are currently OUTSIDE GST and subject to state VAT and central excise.
• Statement 3 is correct: PNGRB is the statutory regulator for CGD bidding and pipeline authorizations.

Policy Initiative: PNG Drive 3.0 was launched to accelerate household cooking gas piped connections across Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.

Q10 UPSC CSE 2019 PYQ

Topic 5: Regulatory Framework of PNGRB

With reference to the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB), consider the following statements:

1.PNGRB is the first regulatory body established by the Government of India.

2.One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.

3.Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: PNGRB was constituted under the PNGRB Act, 2006. Many regulatory bodies (e.g., RBI, SEBI in 1992, TRAI in 1997) were created much earlier.
• Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB mandates non-discriminatory open access and promotes competitive gas trading.
• Statement 3 is correct: Section 30 of the PNGRB Act specifies that appeals against PNGRB orders lie before APTEL (Appellate Tribunal for Electricity).

Official UPSC CSE 2019: Tested regulatory statutory origins and appellate architecture.

Q11 Expected MCQ

Topic 6: Articles 243D/T & OBC Triple Test

With reference to reservations in Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies in India, consider the following statements:

1.Under Articles 243D and 243T, reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in local bodies is constitutionally mandatory for all States.

2.The Supreme Court in the Vikas Kishanrao Gawali case held that the aggregate reservation for SCs, STs, and OBCs in local bodies must not exceed the 50% ceiling.

3.The 'Triple Test' framework requires establishing a dedicated Commission to conduct contemporaneous empirical inquiry into the nature and implications of backwardness in local bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While reservations for SCs/STs and Women are mandatory, OBC reservation under Articles 243D(6) and 243T(6) is discretionary/enabling for State legislatures.
• Statement 2 is correct: Vikas Gawali (2021) reaffirmed the K. Krishnamurthy (2010) constitution bench ruling placing an absolute 50% ceiling on total local body reservations.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Triple Test requires: (1) dedicated commission empirical data, (2) proportion specified per local body, and (3) total reservation not breaching 50%.

Polity Concept: Political backwardness in local self-governance is distinct from social and educational backwardness under Articles 15(4) and 16(4).

Q12 UPSC CSE 2017 PYQ

Topic 6: Objectives of Panchayati Raj System

The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1.People's participation in development

2.Political accountability

3.Democratic decentralisation

4.Financial mobilisation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

• Official UPSC 2017 Prelims: The primary constitutional objectives behind the 73rd Amendment are Democratic Decentralisation and People's participation in local planning and development. Financial mobilization is a secondary function, not the fundamental ideological object.

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): First recommended the establishment of the scheme of 'Democratic Decentralisation'.

Q13 Expected MCQ

Topic 7: Employment Elasticity & Manufacturing Trends

In economic analysis, consider the following statements regarding 'Employment Elasticity':

1.Employment Elasticity measures the percentage change in employment associated with a 1% change in economic output (GDP/GVA).

2.An employment elasticity close to zero or negative indicates that economic growth is becoming capital-intensive or 'jobless'.

3.In India, the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) tracks informal and unorganized sector employment across rural households.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Employment Elasticity = $\frac{\% \Delta \text{ Employment}}{\% \Delta \text{ GDP}}$. Lower elasticity reflects mechanization/automation where output increases without commensurate job creation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: ASI covers registered/formal factories under the Factories Act, 1948. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and Unincorporated Sector Enterprises surveys cover informal/household labor.

Nodal Agency: Both ASI and PLFS are published by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), MoSPI.

Q14 UPSC CSE 2013 PYQ

Topic 7: Disguised Unemployment in India

Disguised unemployment generally means:

Select the correct definition:

Large number of people remain unemployed

Alternative employment is not available

Marginal productivity of labour is zero

Productivity of workers is high

Correct Answer: (C) Marginal productivity of labour is zero

• Official UPSC 2013 Prelims: Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are engaged in an activity than required (predominant in Indian agriculture). Withdrawing surplus workers does not reduce total output because their marginal productivity is zero.

Economic Theory: Coined by Joan Robinson and extensively analyzed in developing economies by Arthur Lewis (Dual Sector Model).

Q15 Expected MCQ

Topic 8: Universal Newborn Screening & ANMOL

With reference to Universal Newborn Screening (UNS) and maternal-child health initiatives in India, consider the following statements:

1.Newborn bloodspot screening involves collecting dried blood spots via a heel-prick within 48 to 72 hours of birth.

2.Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH) and Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) are major treatable endocrine disorders targeted by newborn screening.

3.The ANMOL digital application facilitates real-time tracking and delivery of maternal and child healthcare services by Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANMs).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Heel-prick dried blood spots screened by Tandem Mass Spectrometry prevent irreversible mental retardation and metabolic crises through early hormonal therapy.
• Statement 3 is correct: ANMOL (ANM Online) is an Aadhaar-linked tablet application deployed under the National Health Mission (NHM) to modernize RCH tracking.

National Program: Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) screens children for 4Ds: Defects at birth, Diseases, Deficiencies, and Development delays.

Q16 UPSC CSE 2021 PYQ

Topic 8: Mitochondrial Diseases & Inheritance

With reference to hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:

1.Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy, either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.

2.A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

• Statement 1 is correct: Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT / Three-Parent Baby technology) utilizes Pronuclear Transfer (after IVF) or Maternal Spindle Transfer (before IVF).
• Statement 2 is correct: Mitochondria are strictly inherited maternally through the ovum cytoplasm (sperm mitochondria degrade upon fertilization).

Official UPSC CSE 2021: Grounded in cutting-edge reproductive biotechnology and genetic inheritance.

Q17 Expected MCQ

Topic 9: FRA 2006 & Gram Sabha Authority

With reference to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA), consider the following statements:

1.The Gram Sabha is the statutory authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of Individual and Community Forest Rights.

2.Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights grant the Gram Sabha the power to protect, regenerate, conserve, and manage any community forest resource.

3.The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the designated nodal agency for the implementation of the FRA.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Under Section 6(1) and Section 3(1)(i) of FRA 2006, Gram Sabha is the initiating statutory authority empowered to protect and govern community forest resources.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the designated nodal agency for the implementation of FRA, NOT MoEFCC.

Key Distinction: MoTA administers FRA 2006, while MoEFCC administers the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 / Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam.

Q18 UPSC CSE 2018 PYQ

Topic 9: Nodal Ministry for Forest Rights Act

As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who is the nodal agency for implementation of the Act?

Select the correct ministry:

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Ministry of Rural Development

Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Correct Answer: (D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

• Official UPSC 2018 Prelims: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the exclusive nodal ministry for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.

Three-Tier Committee Architecture: Gram Sabha $\rightarrow$ Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) $\rightarrow$ District Level Committee (DLC, chaired by District Collector - final approving authority).

Q19 Expected MCQ

Topic 10: AQI Formulation & Sub-Index System

With reference to the National Air Quality Index (AQI) launched under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in India, consider the following statements:

1.The overall AQI for a city is calculated by averaging the individual concentrations of all monitored pollutants over 24 hours.

2.The overall AQI corresponds to the maximum sub-index (worst sub-index) among the evaluated criteria pollutants.

3.An AQI reading can be computed only if data is available for a minimum of three pollutants, of which one must be either $\text{PM}_{2.5}$ or $\text{PM}_{10}$.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: AQI is NOT an arithmetic average. Averaging would mask hazardous spikes of single toxic pollutants.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under CPCB guidelines, Composite $\text{AQI} = \max(I_1, I_2, \dots, I_n)$ — the overall AQI is dictated by the highest (worst) sub-index.
• Statement 3 is correct: A minimum of 3 parameters (with at least one particulate metric $\text{PM}_{10}/\text{PM}_{2.5}$) is statistically mandatory to calculate AQI.

6 Color Categories: Good (0–50), Satisfactory (51–100), Moderately Polluted (101–200), Poor (201–300), Very Poor (301–400), Severe (401–500).

Q20 UPSC CSE 2016 PYQ

Topic 10: Pollutants in National Air Quality Index

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the pollutant(s) considered in the National Air Quality Index (AQI)?

1.Carbon dioxide

2.Carbon monoxide

3.Nitrogen dioxide

4.Sulphur dioxide

5.Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

• Official UPSC 2016 Prelims: The National AQI tracks 8 pollutants: $\text{PM}_{10}$, $\text{PM}_{2.5}$, $\text{NO}_2$, $\text{SO}_2$, $\text{CO}$, $\text{O}_3$ (Ozone), $\text{NH}_3$ (Ammonia), and $\text{Pb}$ (Lead).
• Carbon Dioxide ($\text{CO}_2$) and Methane ($\text{CH}_4$) are greenhouse gases and are NOT included in the National AQI.

Key Mantra: "One Number-One Color-One Description" launched by CPCB & MoEFCC.

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