The Indian Express Daily Quiz 3 October 2026: 20 MCQs with Authentic UPSC PYQs & Solutions

🏛️ UPSC PRELIMS DAILY PRACTICE PORTAL 🗓️ 3 October 2026

The Indian Express & The Hindu Daily Current Affairs Quiz

Master 10 high-yield editorial themes with paired Expected Current Affairs MCQs immediately followed by authentic Official UPSC CSE Past Year Questions (PYQs).

📌 10 Paired Editorial Topics Covered Today:

1. SIR & Electoral Roll Forms (6, 7, 8) 2. CEC & ECs Appointment (2023 Act & Article 324) 3. Permanent Constitution Bench (Article 145(3)) 4. GOBARdhan Scheme & Compressed Biogas (CBG) 5. Ship-to-Ship Oil Transfers & Strait of Hormuz 6. Simultaneous Elections & Judicial Review 7. Gujarat UCC Bill & Directive Principles (Article 44) 8. Drug Pricing Mechanism (NPPA, DPCO & NLEM) 9. SCO Multilateral Engagement & RATS 10. Standardised Ladakh Toponyms & Survey of India

Correct: 0

Wrong: 0

Score: 0/20

Q1 Expected MCQ

Topic 1: Electoral Roll Revision & Forms

With reference to the electoral registration process and statutory forms under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, consider the following statements:

1.The Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) is the statutory authority empowered to decide on the inclusion or deletion of names in electoral rolls.

2.Form 7 is submitted for seeking objection to inclusion or deletion of an existing name from the electoral roll.

3.Form 8 is utilized for shifting of residence within or outside the constituency, as well as correction of entries in the existing electoral roll.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 22 of the RPA 1950, the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) is the statutory quasi-judicial authority responsible for maintenance and correction of electoral rolls.
• Statement 2 is correct: Form 7 is specifically designated for objection against inclusion or for seeking deletion of a name.
• Statement 3 is correct: Form 8 handles multiple services: shifting of residence, correction of particulars, replacement of EPIC, and marking of PwD electors.

Key Distinction: Form 6 is for registration of new voters / first-time applicants; Form 6A is for overseas electors.

Q2 UPSC CSE 2017 PYQ

Topic 1: Nature of Right to Vote in India

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:

Select the correct option:

Fundamental Right

Natural Right

Constitutional Right

Legal Right only

Correct Answer: (C) Constitutional Right

• Official UPSC 2017 Prelims: As per Article 326 of the Constitution of India, elections to the House of the People and Legislative Assemblies are based on adult suffrage. While regulated by the Representation of the People Act, 1951, its constitutional foundation in Article 326 makes it a Constitutional Right.

Article 326: Universal adult suffrage is the bedrock of democratic franchise in the Indian Constitution.

Q3 Expected MCQ

Topic 2: CEC & ECs Appointment Act, 2023

With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

1.The Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India.

2.The Act replaced the interim arrangement mandated by the Supreme Court in the Anoop Baranwal judgment (2023).

3.A Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary prepares a panel of five persons for consideration by the Selection Committee.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Section 7 of the 2023 Act, the Selection Committee comprises the Prime Minister (Chairperson), Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister (the Chief Justice of India is NOT a member).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Act superseded the interim committee (PM + LoP + CJI) laid down in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023).
• Statement 3 is correct: Section 6 establishes a Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary with two other members (not below Secretary rank) to prepare a 5-member panel.

Constitutional Provision: Article 324(2) empowers Parliament to make laws governing the appointment of the CEC and other ECs.

Q4 UPSC CSE 2017 PYQ

Topic 2: Election Commission of India Powers

Consider the following statements:

1.The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2.Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3.Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

Correct Answer: (D) 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: ECI is a 3-member body (1 Chief Election Commissioner and 2 Election Commissioners) since October 1993.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Election schedule is exclusively decided by the Election Commission of India under Article 324, not the MHA.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, ECI is the sole quasi-judicial forum for settling party splits and symbol disputes.

Official UPSC CSE 2017: Core institutional powers and composition of ECI.

Q5 Expected MCQ

Topic 3: Article 145(3) & Judicial Benches

With reference to Constitution Benches in the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

1.Under Article 145(3) of the Constitution, a minimum of five judges must sit for deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.

2.Any reference made by the President of India under Article 143 (Advisory Jurisdiction) must be heard by a Bench of not less than five judges.

3.The constitution of Benches and allocation of cases is the exclusive administrative prerogative of the Chief Justice of India as the 'Master of the Roster'.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Article 145(3) mandates that the minimum number of Judges who are to sit for deciding any substantial question of constitutional law or for hearing a reference under Article 143 shall be five.
• Statement 3 is correct: Reaffirmed in multiple judgments (e.g., Asok Pande and Shanti Bhushan cases), the CJI alone has the prerogative to constitute Benches and allocate business as Master of the Roster.

Law Commission Report: The 229th Law Commission Report recommended dividing the Supreme Court into a Constitution Bench at Delhi and four regional Cassation Benches.

Q6 UPSC CSE 2019 PYQ

Topic 3: Jurisdictions of the Supreme Court

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

Select the correct jurisdiction:

Advisory jurisdiction

Appellate jurisdiction

Original jurisdiction

Writ jurisdiction

Correct Answer: (C) Original jurisdiction

• Official UPSC 2019 Prelims: Under Article 131 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has exclusive Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between: (a) Government of India and one or more States, (b) Government of India and any State(s) on one side and other State(s) on the other, or (c) between two or more States.

Article 131: Deals with federal disputes involving legal rights; excludes pre-constitution treaties or interstate river water disputes (Article 262).

Q7 Expected MCQ

Topic 4: GOBARdhan & Bio-CNG Standards

With reference to the Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan (GOBARdhan) initiative and Compressed Biogas (CBG), consider the following statements:

1.Compressed Biogas (CBG) has methane content of more than 90%, making its calorific value and properties comparable to commercially available CNG.

2.Fermented Organic Manure (FOM) / Digestate produced as a byproduct of CBG plants is enriched with nutrients and can replace chemical fertilizers.

3.The SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) initiative was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to promote CBG plants.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: Raw biogas is purified to remove $\text{CO}_2$, $\text{H}_2\text{S}$, and moisture to achieve $>90\%$ methane content (IS 16087 standard), making it chemically identical to CNG.
• Statement 2 is correct: Solid and liquid digestate provides Fermented Organic Manure (FOM) supporting circular bioeconomy and PM-PRANAM.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: SATAT was launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) in collaboration with Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs).

Unified Portal: GOBARdhan operates as an inter-ministerial initiative anchored by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (Ministry of Jal Shakti).

Q8 UPSC CSE 2019 PYQ

Topic 4: Agricultural Biomass & Biofuel Feedstock

According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?

1.Cassava

2.Damaged wheat grains

3.Groundnut seeds

4.Gram

5.Rotten potatoes

6.Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2, 5 and 6 only

1, 3, 4 and 6 only

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Correct Answer: (A) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

• Official UPSC 2019 Prelims: The National Policy on Biofuels (2018) allows starchy/sugary feedstocks unfit for human consumption: sugarcane juice, sugar beet, sweet sorghum, cassava, damaged food grains (broken rice, damaged wheat), and rotten potatoes. Fit-for-human consumption food legumes (Gram) and staple oilseeds (Groundnut) are excluded to prevent food security crises.

Ethanol Blending Target: India achieved 20% ethanol blending (E20) target ahead of the revised 2025-26 timeline.

Q9 Expected MCQ

Topic 5: Ship-to-Ship Crude Transfers & Chokepoints

In the context of international maritime logistics and energy security, consider the following statements:

1.Ship-to-Ship (STS) transfer involves the transfer of crude oil or petroleum cargo between two seagoing vessels while at anchor or underway at sea.

2.All crude oil exported from Iraq, Kuwait, and Qatar must necessarily transit through the Strait of Hormuz.

3.The East-West Crude Oil Pipeline (Petroline) enables Saudi Arabia to transport crude directly to the Red Sea, bypassing the Strait of Hormuz.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 is correct: STS operations transfer cargo from smaller shuttle tankers (navigating conflict zones) to Very Large Crude Carriers (VLCCs) in international waters.
• Statement 2 is correct: Iraq (Basra terminal), Kuwait, and Qatar have no functional bypass pipelines to open seas and depend completely on maritime transit through Hormuz.
• Statement 3 is correct: Saudi Arabia operates the 1,200-km East-West pipeline to Yanbu on the Red Sea, and UAE operates the Abu Dhabi Crude Oil Pipeline (ADCOP) to Fujairah.

Strategic Chokepoint: Approximately 20-21 million barrels per day (about 20% of global petroleum liquids consumption) passes through the Strait of Hormuz.

Q10 UPSC CSE 2022 PYQ

Topic 5: Major Global Chokepoints & Waterways

Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

Select the correct option:

Lake Victoria

Lake Faguibine

Lake Oguta

Lake Volta

Correct Answer: (B) Lake Faguibine

• Official UPSC 2022 Prelims: Lake Faguibine in northern Mali (West Africa), once fed by annual flooding from the Niger River, completely dried up following severe Sahelian droughts and desertification.

Sahel Region: Transition zone between the Sahara desert in the north and Sudanian savannas in the south.

Q11 Expected MCQ

Topic 6: Simultaneous Elections & Constitutional Amendments

With reference to the proposals for Simultaneous Elections (One Nation, One Election) in India, consider the following statements:

1.The High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections was headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind.

2.Synchronizing elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies requires a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368 that must be ratified by at least half of the State Legislatures.

3.In case of a hung assembly or mid-term dissolution, the committee recommended holding fresh elections only for the unexpired remainder of the full tenure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 is correct: The Ram Nath Kovind Committee submitted its report in March 2024.
• Statement 2 is correct: Introducing simultaneous elections for Municipalities and Panchayats with Lok Sabha/Assemblies (Article 324A) and common electoral rolls impacts federal entries and requires ratification by $\ge 50\%$ States under the proviso to Article 368(2).
• Statement 3 is correct: The committee recommended an 'unexpired term' rule (new assembly serves only until the next cycle) to prevent desynchronization.

Historical Fact: Simultaneous elections were held in India during the first four general elections (1952, 1957, 1962, and 1967).

Q12 UPSC CSE 2020 PYQ

Topic 6: Constitutionalism & Limited Government

A Constitutional Government by definition is a:

Select the correct definition:

Government by legislature

Popular government

Multi-party government

Limited government

Correct Answer: (D) Limited government

• Official UPSC 2020 & 2021 Prelims: Constitutionalism fundamentally imposes legal constraints and institutional checks and balances on state authority to protect individual liberties (Rule of Law vs arbitrary rule).

Constitutionalism: Emphasizes separation of powers, judicial review, and fundamental rights.

Q13 Expected MCQ

Topic 7: Article 44 & State UCC Legislation

With reference to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and the constitutional framework in India, consider the following statements:

1.Article 44 of the Constitution explicitly directs the State to secure for citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.

2.Personal laws concerning marriage, divorce, and succession fall under the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule.

3.A State UCC Bill requires the assent of the President of India under Article 254(2) if its provisions conflict with existing Central enactments on concurrent subjects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 44 (Part IV - DPSP) states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
• Statement 2 is correct: Entry 5 of the Concurrent List covers marriage, divorce, infants and minors, adoption, wills, intestacy, and succession.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 254(2), a State law on a concurrent subject that is repugnant to an earlier Central Act prevails in that State only after receiving Presidential assent.

Pioneer States: Goa operates under the Portuguese Civil Code, 1867; Uttarakhand enacted the first post-independence UCC in 2024, followed by Gujarat in 2026.

Q14 UPSC CSE 2020 PYQ

Topic 7: Ideals of Welfare State & DPSPs

Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a 'Welfare State'?

Select the correct part:

Directive Principles of State Policy

Fundamental Rights

Preamble only

Seventh Schedule

Correct Answer: (A) Directive Principles of State Policy

• Official UPSC 2020 Prelims: Article 38 under Part IV (DPSPs) directs the State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people, establishing socio-economic democracy.

Granville Austin: Described Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as the 'Conscience of the Constitution'.

Q15 Expected MCQ

Topic 8: Drug Price Control Order (DPCO) & NPPA

With reference to the regulation of pharmaceutical prices in India, consider the following statements:

1.The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is an attached office under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

2.Ceiling prices for 'Scheduled Formulations' are fixed based on the simple average of Price to Retailer (PTR) of all brands having a market share $\ge 1\%$, plus a $16\%$ retailer margin.

3.Manufacturers of non-scheduled medicines are permitted to increase their Maximum Retail Price (MRP) by up to 10% annually without prior government approval.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only

• Statement 1 is incorrect: NPPA is an attached body under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers (NOT Ministry of Health).
• Statement 2 is correct: Under DPCO 2013, market-based pricing calculates the simple average PTR of brands with $\ge 1\%$ market share plus a 16% retail margin.
• Statement 3 is correct: Paragraph 20 of DPCO 2013 caps annual MRP hikes for non-scheduled drugs at 10% over the preceding 12 months.

NLEM Linkage: Scheduled medicines are directly derived from the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM).

Q16 UPSC CSE 2019 PYQ

Topic 8: Statutory Control of Essential Commodities

Consider the following statements regarding the Essential Commodities Act, 1955:

1.Drugs and medicines are notified as essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.

2.The Central Government can add or remove any commodity from the Schedule of Essential Commodities in consultation with State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

• Under Section 2A of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, "drugs" (medicines) are explicitly included in the Schedule of essential commodities, enabling the Central Government to issue price control orders (DPCOs).

Parent Act: Drugs (Prices Control) Order is issued under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.

Q17 Expected MCQ

Topic 9: Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) & RATS

With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements:

1.The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is a permanent organ of the SCO headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.

2.India and Pakistan were admitted as full members of the SCO simultaneously at the Astana Summit in 2017.

3.All Central Asian republics that emerged from the former Soviet Union are full member states of the SCO.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

• Statement 1 is correct: SCO has two permanent bodies: SCO Secretariat in Beijing and Executive Committee of RATS in Tashkent.
• Statement 2 is correct: India and Pakistan officially joined as full members in June 2017 at Astana, Kazakhstan.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Turkmenistan is NOT a member state of SCO (maintains permanent neutrality policy).

Latest Entrants: Iran joined in 2023, and Belarus joined as the 10th full member in 2024.

Q18 UPSC CSE 2022 PYQ

Topic 9: Membership of Regional Groupings (SCO)

Consider the following countries:

1.Azerbaijan

2.Kyrgyzstan

3.Tajikistan

4.Turkmenistan

5.Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)?

2, 3 and 5 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 5 only

2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (A) 2, 3 and 5 only

• Official UPSC 2022 Prelims: The full members of SCO include China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, Pakistan, Iran, and Belarus. Azerbaijan (Dialogue Partner) and Turkmenistan (non-member) are NOT full members.

Official Languages: Russian and Chinese are the two official and working languages of the SCO.

Q19 Expected MCQ

Topic 10: Survey of India & Ladakh Geography

With reference to the standardisation of geographical names and mapping authorities in India, consider the following statements:

1.The Survey of India, functioning under the Ministry of Science and Technology, is the National Mapping Agency responsible for official cartography and geographical names.

2.Parpik Glacier and Chapchingal Pass are prominent geographical landmarks situated in the Ladakh trans-Himalayan region.

3.Survey of India is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India, originally established in 1767.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 1 & 3 are correct: Survey of India (established 1767, headquartered in Dehradun) under DST is India's principal cartographic agency and oldest scientific organization.
• Statement 2 is correct: Parpik Glacier, Skamri Glacier, and Chapchingal Pass are officially notified geographic features across the Karakoram/Ladakh range.

National Geospatial Policy: Adopted in 2022 to liberalize geospatial data while retaining Survey of India as custodian of foundational topographical data.

Q20 UPSC CSE 2020 PYQ

Topic 10: Trans-Himalayan Physical Geography

Siachen Glacier is situated to the:

Select the correct geographic orientation:

East of Aksai Chin

East of Leh

North of Gilgit

North of Nubra Valley

Correct Answer: (D) North of Nubra Valley

• Official UPSC 2020 Prelims: Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, immediately to the north of Nubra Valley. The Nubra River originates from the terminus of the Siachen Glacier.

Strategic Landmark: Saltoro Ridge lies to the west of Siachen; Indira Col is at its northernmost point.

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